Microbiolgy past papers - viruses

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134 Terms

1
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The following statements are true about treatments of viral infections EXCEPT

A. Zidovudine can be used for treatment of HIV infected patients

B. Ribavirin therapy is useful for RSV

C. Oseltamivir can be used for influenza virus infection

D. Zanamivir therapy is good for herpes simplex infection

D

2
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Which of following virus is the etiological agent of "condyloma acuminatum"?

A. Human herpes virus type 1

B. BK virus

C. Human papillomavirus

D. Human herpes virus type 8

C

3
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The following diseases are vector borne diseases, transmitted by mosquitos EXCEPT

A. Dengue fever

B. Yellow fever

C. West-Nile virus encephalitis

D. Trench fever - relapsing fever

D

4
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Serological diagnosis of a primary viral infection may be made from

A. Detection of viral specific IgD

B. Detection of viral specific IgE

C. Detection of viral specific IgG

D. Detection of viral specific IgM

D

5
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A 4-month-old child develops a fever, restlessness and unusual crying following lethargy. Acute aseptic meningitis is diagnosed probably by an enterovirus. Enteroviruses are characterized by:

A. There are only a few human enterovirus genotypes

B. Their transmission is primarily by the fecal-oral route

C. They can frequently cause chronic infections

D. Diarrhea as a primary disease

B

6
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Cystitis is not caused by

A. BK virus

B. JC virus

C. Escherichia coli

D. Schistosoma hematobium

B

7
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Vaccine used for prophylaxis of polio infection

A. BCG

B. MMR

C. Salk vaccine

D. Hib vaccine

C

8
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HAART is used in therapy of

A. Influenza A viral infection

B. HIV infection

C. Malaria

D. Leprosy

B

9
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Antiviral drug combination therapy is used in which of the following viral infections?

A. Influenza virus

B. Herpes simplex virus

C. RSV

D. Hepatitis C virus

D

10
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While taking blood from an HIV patient, 24-year-old nurse suffered a needle-stick injury. Six months later the nurse's serum was reactive with the ELISA test and gave equivocal results using repeated ELISA test and was negative by Western blot method. The nurse...

A. Is in the window period between acute infection with HIV and seroconversion

B. Is probably not infected with HIV

C. Is probably infected with HIV

D. May be infected with a resistant strain of HIV

B

11
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Characteristic of viruses

A. nanometer

B. micrometer

C. millimeter

D. Ångström

A

12
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Adenovirus

A. Contains double stranded DNA

B. Possess an envelope

C. Causes adenoviral keratitis which responds well to topical acyclovir

D. Can be classified into more than 40 serotypes

A, D

13
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Certain viruses have been associated with birth defects; these viruses include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Rubella virus

B. CMV

C. VZV

D. Parvovirus B19

E. Rhinovirus

E

14
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The following viruses are associated with congenital infection EXCEPT ONE:

A. Rubella virus

B. CMV

C. Parvovirus B-19

D. Varicella

E. RSV

E

15
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The following viral diseases are characterized by maculopapular rash EXCEPT ONE:

A. Measles

B. Rubella

C. Erythema infectiosum

D. Exanthem subitum

E. Herpangina

E

16
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The human diploid cell vaccine is used for prevention of:

A. Rabies

B. Varicella

C. Hepatitis A

D. Yellow fever

E. RSV infection

A

17
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The following antiviral drugs are nucleoside analogues EXCEPT ONE:

a. Acyclovir

b. Gancyclovir

c. Foscarnet

d. Zidovudine (AZT)

e. Didanosine (dd1)

C

18
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Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS), except

A. Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood

B. HSV encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis

C. Measles encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis

D. The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker

B

19
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Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) is associated with

A. Burkitt's lymphoma

B. Adult T-cell lymphoma

C. Multiple Sclerosis

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

B

20
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The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans, EXCEPT

A. Rabies Virus

B. Polioviruses

C. Hantaviruses

D. Lassa Fever Virus

E. JC

B

21
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The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis, EXCEPT

A. HbeAg

B. Anti-HBc IgG

C. Anti-HBc IgM

D. HBV-DNA

E. HbsAg

D

22
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A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:

A. Hantavirus Infection

B. Hepatitis A

C. Hepatitis C

D. Smallpox Infection

C

23
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HHV-6 is associated with

A. Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum)

B. Roseala Infantum

C. Kaposi's Sarcoma

D. Oral leukoplakia

B

24
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Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A. Primary infection is usually symptomatic

B. An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.

C. May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals

D. Causes Kawasaki's Disease

C

25
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The following antiviral agents is active against the following virus EXCEPT

a. Lamivudine and HIV

b. Lamivudine and HBV

c. Amantadine and influenza B virus

d. Ribavirin and RSV

e. Acyclovir and HSV

C

26
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Live attenuated vaccines are available against the following viruses EXCEPT

A. Rubella Virus

B. Yellow Fever Virus

C. Varicella-Zoster Virus

D. Hepatitis B

D

27
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The following statements are true of Varicella-Zoster Virus

A. Causes a maculopapular rash

B. Respond to AZT therapy

C. Remains latent in sensory ganglia following primary infection

D. Recurrent episodes of Shingles usually occur

E. Patients with shingles are not infectious

C

28
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When infectious mononucleosis is suspected, all the following tests can be useful EXCEPT ONE:

A. IgM antibody to EB-VCA

B. IgG antibody to EB-VCA

C. Antibody to EB-NAs

D. Culture

D

29
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Mode of transmission of Adenovirus spp. is

A. Fecal-oral

B. Wound infection

C. Sexual

D. Blood

E. Skin contact with larvae

D

30
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Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following viruses:

A. Coronavirus

B. Reovirus

C. Rhinovirus

D. Enterovirus

E. RSV

D

31
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Morbidity of BK is

A. Scarlet fever

B. Croup

C. Meningitis

D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

E. Measles

D

32
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Which is not characteristic for Rubella?

A. Is transmitted through the respiratory tract

B. Is an RNA virus

C. Has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days

D. More likely to cause fetal abnormalities when the mother becomes infested in late trimester

D

33
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Which is not characteristic for Measles?

A. Can be prevented through immunization with a live attenuated strain

B. Causes fetal abnormalities if the mother becomes infected during pregnancy

C. Is most infectious before the onset of symptoms

D. Is associated with secondary bacterial infection which is the main cause of mortality

D

34
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Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is CORRECT?

A. The testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved B. There is no vaccine against mumps

C. Passive immunization is the only means of preventing the disease

D. The diagnosis is made only on clinical grounds, since the virus cannot be grown in cell culture and serologic tests are inaccurate

E. Second episodes of mumps can occur, since there are 2 serotypes

A

35
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Fetal abnormalities occur if the mother becomes infected with

A. Hepatitis A

B. Cytomegalovirus

C. Hepatitis B

D. Rotavirus

B

36
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Which statement is incorrect regarding the epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?

A. Nosocomial epidemic infections are also possible in wards of ophthalmology

B. Serotype 8 adenovirus is the most common agent

C. It is healed in all cases without sequelae

D. The characteristic symptoms are the inflammation of the conjunctiva, the

E. excessive tearing, the ocular pain and the photophobia

B

37
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Human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)

A. Is a retrovirus containing RNA

B. Contains env gene which encodes the core nucleocapsid polypeptides

C. Binds specifically to B lymphocytes

D. Causes an increase in CD4+ lymphocytes during seroconversion

A

38
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Diagnostic test of Human immunodeficiency virus is:

A. Visual stool examination

B. None

C. Skin test

D. Culture

E. Antibody detection

E

39
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Viral with oncogenic properties in humans exclude

A. Hepatitis B virus

B. Papovavirus

C. Epstein-Barr virus

D. Cytomegalovirus

D

40
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The following is true about hepatitis B

A. It is a RNA virus

B. Immunity can be acquired by vaccination with a live attenuated virus

C. Persistent presence of HbsAg increases the risk of chronic liver disease

D. The average incubation period is 30 days

C

41
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The following is useful in the diagnosis of HIV infection

A. Latex agglutination

B. Antibodies by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

C. Tube agglutination

D. Immunofluorescence assay

B

42
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Morbidity of JC

A. River blindness

B. Herpetic whitlow

C. Progressive multifocal lymphencephalopathy

D. Labial herpes

E. Hemorrhage resulting from larval migration

C

43
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Which is not true in viral meningitis?

A. The overall mortality is less than pyogenic meningitis

B. The CSF cellular response is predominantly lymphocytic

C. CSF glucose concentration may be markedly decreased

D. CSF protein concentration may be slightly raised

C

44
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Morbidity of JC is

A. Hepatitis

B. Progressive multifocal lymphencephalopathy

C. Enteritis

D. Measles

E. Meningitis

B

45
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Diagnostic test of HTLV-1 is:

A. PCR

B. Visual stool examination

C. Culture

D. Direct antibody staining

E. Antibody detection

E

46
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Incubation period of Herpes simplex virus is:

A. 10-40 years

B. 1 week

C. 2 days

D. 14-90 days

B

47
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Phenotypic characteristic of Mumps virus is

A. Eggs have a terminal spine

B. ssRNA

C. ssRNA+

D. Non-enveloped

E. Triple-layered

B

48
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Which of the following statements refers to hepatitis E virus?

A. Congenital infection: ophthalmic, cardiac, neurologic and auditory sequelae. Postcongenital: rash, fever, rare encephalitis

B. 15% fatality in pregnant women. Not endemic in the USA

C. Can be carried asymptomatically in nasopharynx

D. 5% becomes persistent

E. P. falciparum infection can last up to 3 months; P. malariae - for the lifetime of the patient

B

49
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This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children. It causes infections that are often sever and may be life-threatening, especially in infants. Now the vaccine is available to protect from this infection.

A. Adenovirus

B. Norovirus

C. Astrovirus

D. Rotavirus

D

50
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A 43-year-ols woman is hospitalized for the chemotherapy treatment of leukemia in the middle of January. One day after admission she develops chills, high fever, sore throat, headache and myalgia. She states that her husband had similar acute respiratory illness (influenza) a few days earlier. Which of the following treatment should be started based on the clinical diagnosis?

A. Acyclovir87

B. Lamivudine

C. Oseltamivir

D. Ribavirin

C

51
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Diagnostic test of Hepatitis C virus is

A. Direct antibody staining

B. Antibody detection

C. Visual stool examination

D. Skin test

E. PCR

E

52
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Family of Measles virus is

A. Reoviridae

B. Bunyaviridae

C. Rhabdoviridae

D. Paramyxoviridae

E. Papovaviridae

D

53
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Diagnostic test of Herpes simplex virus is

A. ELISA (for antigen)

B. Blood smear

C. Perianal cellophane tape swab (for eggs and adult worms)

D. Culture

E. Antibody detection

E

54
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Mode of transmission of Human immunodeficiency virus is

A. Breast milk

B. Direct contact

C. Exposure to infested water

D. Fecal-oral

E. Urine (of congenitally infected patients)

A

55
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Morbidity of measles virus

A. Hepatitis

B. Opportunistic pathogen

C. Enteritis

D. Post-infectious encephalomyelitis

E. Mosquito borne encephalitis

D

56
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Morbidity of Norwalk virus

A. Upper respiratory tract infection

B. Pelvic inflammatory disease

C. Brucellosis

D. Gastroenteritis

E. Croup

D

57
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Phenotypic characteristic of Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is

A. Beta-hemolytic

B. Triple-layered

C. Segmental genome

D. ssRNA

E. ssRNA+

C

58
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Mode of transmission of Hepatitis D virus is

A. Urine (of congenitally infected patients)

B. Saliva

C. Inhalation of infested avian feces

D. Sexual

E. Blood

E

59
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Family of JC is

A. Herpesviridae

B. Papovaviridae

C. Filoviridae

D. Paramyxoviridae

E. Reoviridae

B

60
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Therapy of Respiratory syncytial virus is:

A. Ribavirin

B. Interferon alpha

C. Piperacillin

D. Famciclovir

E. Ceftazidime

A

61
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The antiviral used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease infection is

A. amantadine

B. acyclovir

C. ribavirin

D. immune globulin

E. AZT

C

62
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Respiratory syncytial virus is most associated with which of the following syndromes

A. bronchiolitis of young adults

B. bronchiolitis in young infants

C. upper lobe infiltrates of young adults

D. upper lobe infiltrates of young children

E. lower lobe infiltrates of young adults

B

63
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f an influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family, which antiviral drug could be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure?

A. acyclovir

B. ganciclovir

C. amantadine

D. cyclosporin A

C

64
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The vaccine for influenza has the following components

A. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A and B

B. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza A, B and C

C. nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of influenza A, B and C

D. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase for influenza B only

E. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase for influenza B and C

A

65
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A respiratory disease spread by the droplet aerosol route during winter, causing severe headache, cough, fever, malaise and congestion is most compatible with which of the following as an etiological agent?

A. mumps

B. influenza A

C. influenza C

D. chicken pox

E. hepatitis A virus

B

66
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Which of the following statements accurately describes the envelope constituents of the parainfluenza and mumps viruses?

A. hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present

B. neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present

C. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present

D. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase and fusion protein present

E. fusion protein, but no hemagglutinin or neuraminidase present

D

67
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Which family contains Rubella virus and what group of individuals is most at risk for severe sequelae from rubella infections?

A. paramyxovirus family; grade school children

B. togavirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester

C. paramyxovirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester

D. togavirus family; grade school children

E. togavirus family; middle age adults

B

68
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Which of the following host proteins is the first to rise to high titer, in response to viral infection?

A. immunoglobulin

B. complement

C. interferon

D. anti-idiotype antibody

C

69
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What is one component of all mammalian viruses?

A. the envelope

B. the polymerase

C. the icosahedral capsid

D. the lipid

E. the nucleic acid

E

70
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Influenza viruses are predominantly transmitted by

A. the aerosol route during the summer

B. close physical contact during the summer

C. the fecal-oral route during the winter

D. the aerosol route and close physical contact during the winter

D

71
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Diagnostic test of Enterovirus spp.

A. Antibody detection

B. Biopsy

C. Acid fast stool stain

D. PCR

E. Direct antibody staining

D

72
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What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eukaryotic cell?

A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase

B. the presence of the correct virus receptor

C. the presence of a nucleus in the eukaryotic cell

D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes

E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments

B

73
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The nucleocapsid refers to

A. the complete viral particle

B. the viral genetic material

C. the viral proteins only

D. the viral genetic material and associated lipids

E. the viral genetic material and associated proteins

E

74
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Polymerases are encoded on the genomes of

A. all viruses

B. all DNA viruses

C. all RNA viruses

D. only the largest viruses

E. no viruses

C

75
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Parvovirus genome

A. dsDNA, small, complex symmetry

B. ssDNA, small, icosahedral symmetry

C. ssDNA, small, helical symmetry

D. ss.RNA, large, helical symmetry

E. dsRNA, middle -sized, icosahedral symmetry

B

76
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The smallest known RNA viruses are the

A. picornavirus

B. adenovirus

C. enterovirus

D. orthomyxovirus

E. paramyxovirus

A

77
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Which viruses replicates in the nucleus?

A. poxviruses

B. paramyxoviruses

C. picornaviruses

D. parvoviruses

E. rhabdoviruses

D

78
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Family of Hepatitis A virus is

A. Paramyxoviridae

B. Filoviridae

C. Orthomyxoviridae

D. Picornaviridae

E. Parvoviridae

D

79
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Phenotypic characteristic of BK is

A. Flagellated

B. ssRNA

C. Enveloped

D. Lancefield group D

E. dsDNA

E

80
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Family of BK is

A. Herpesviridae

B. Bunyaviridae

C. Papovaviridae

D. Arenaviridae

E. Rhabdoviridae

C

81
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Family of Varicella Zoster virus is

A. Adenoviridae

B. Hepadnaviridae

C. Reoviridae

D. Herpesviridae

E. Rhabdoviridae

D

82
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Phenotypic characteristic of Hepatitis E virus is

A. Enveloped

B. Ornithine decarboxylase negative

C. Non-enveloped

D. Indole negative

E. Segmented genome

C

83
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Mode of transmission of Hepatitis E virus is

A. Breast milk

B. Mosquito bites

C. Fecal-oral

D. Saliva

E. Sexual

C

84
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The following is a live vaccine

A. Tetanus

B. Hepatitis B

C. Measles

D. Diphtheria

C

85
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The following viral infections cannot be prevented by vaccination

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis B

C. Hepatitis C

D. Mumps

C

86
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Diagnostic test of Parainfluenza viruses is

A. Culture

B. Antibody detection

C. PCR

D. Direct antibody staining

E. ELISA (for antigen)

D

87
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Human herpes viral infections are treated with

A. Alpha interferon

B. Protease inhibitors

C. Acyclovir

D. Probeneciod

C

88
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Family of Parainfluenza viruses is

A. Parvoviridae

B. Bunyaviridae

C. Paramyxoviridae

D. Arenaviridae

E. Herpesviridae

C

89
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Which of the following statements refers to Hepatitis D virus?

A. 5% becomes persistent

B. Receptor - CD21 (complement receptor type 2)

C. Envelope consists of HbsAg

D. Primary infection is usually asymptomatic. Congenital infection results in cytomegalic inclusion disease

E. Sand-fly gut: promastigote → amastigote

C

90
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Family of Lymphocytic choriomeningitis is

A. Reoviridae

B. Arenaviridae

C. Parvoviridae

D. Picornaviridae

E. Bunyaviridae

B

91
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Morbidity of Mumps virus is

A. Hepatitis

B. Herpetic whitlow

C. Pancreatitis

D. Urinary tract infections

E. Hemorrhagic fever

D

92
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Therapy of Hepatitis B virus

A. Bone marrow transplant (for post-transplant lymphoma)

B. Niclosamide

C. Ceftriaxone

D. Famciclovir

E. Amantadine

D

93
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Mode of transmission of Ebola is

A. Direct contact

B. Transplacental

C. Sexual

D. Sand-fly bites

E. Droplet nuclei

A

94
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Family of Marburg is

A. Adenoviridae

B. Filoviridae

C. Papovaviridae

D. Rhabdoviridae

E. Flaviviridae

B

95
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Mode of transmission of Norwalk virus is

A. Direct contact

B. Blood

C. Transplacental

D. Droplet nuclei

E. Fecal-oral

E

96
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Family of Rubella virus is

A. Adenoviridae

B. Flaviviridae

C. Bunyaviridae

D. Reoviridae

E. Togaviridae

E

97
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Phenotypic characteristic of Kaposi sarcoma herpes virus is

A. Bilobed nucleus

B. ssRNA+

C. Enveloped

D. Non-enveloped

E. No hyphal septae

C

98
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Family of Kaposi sarcoma herpes virus

A. filoviridae

B. paramyxoviridae

C. retroviridae

D. picornaviridae

E. Herpesviridae

E

99
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Therapy of influenza virus is

A. Bone marrow transplant (for post-transplant lymphoma)

B. Rifampin

C. Ampicillin

D. Interferon alpha

E. Amantadine

E

100
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Mode of transmission of Hepatitis C virus is

A. Tick bites

B. Sexual

C. Ingestion of infected animal product

D. Droplet nuclei

E. Fecal-oral

B