Acute Care of Injury and Illnesses final

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Which of the following regulates how any member of a sports medicine team who has health information about an athlete can share that information with others?
- American Academy of Sports Medicine
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
- Americans with Disabilities Act
- Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Athletes should shower before receiving treatment in the facility

Which of the following statements is true about the rules and policies of athletic health care facilities?
- Athletes should consume their daily helping of healthy foods within the facility
- Athletes should store game equipment in specific storage units built inside the facility
- Athletes should wear cleated shoes at all times within the facility
- Athletes should shower before receiving treatment in the facility

Different specialized areas related to performance enhancement and injury care

Which of the following definitions best describes the field of "sports medicine"?
- The specialized surgeries that are performed on injured athletes
- Different specialized areas related to performance enhancement and injury care
- An association that includes a few professional organizations
- A team that includes a physician, an athletic trainer and a coach

team physician

In the sports medicine team, the individual who is responsible for compiling medical histories and conducting physical examinations for each athlete is the ____________.
- team physician
- coach
- school nurse
- athletic trainer

sports fans

Who among the following does NOT play a role in an athletes health and safety?
- nutritionists
- biomechanists
- sports fans
- strength and conditioning coaches

Recreational therapists

_________ treat and rehabilitate individuals with specific health conditions, usually in collaboration with physicians, psychologists, social workers, and physical and occupational counselors in acute healthcare settings, using leisure activities such as structured group programs to improve and maintain their clients' general health and well-being.

- Recreational therapists
- Recreational directors
- Activity specialists
- Team supervisors

Psychologist

A team's ________ takes care of the way an injured athlete feels about their injury and how it affects their social, emotional, intellectual, and physical dimensions.
- Podiatrist
- Physician
- Physical trainer
- Psychologist

Identify whether an athlete is at risk before they participate in a sport

The primary purpose of a preparticipation health examination is to:
- satisfy insurance and liability issues
- determine body fat percentages for coaches in a specific sport
- identify whether an athlete is at risk before they participate in a sport
- reveal qualifying conditions

All of these answers are correct

Who among the following is part of the sports medicine team?
- All of these answers are correct
- A certified athletic trainer
- An exercise physiologist
- A coach

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

Which of the following protects the privacy of students and gives parents certain rights with respect to their children's school records?
- Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
- Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

treatment logs

Which of the following types of documentation should be used as a sign-in record for athletes who receive any service in an athletic health care facility?
- injury record forms
- personal information cards
- treatment logs
- injury reports

All of these answers are correct

Athletic training is:
- concerned with the prevention and treatment of injuries related to physical activity
- a major link between sports programs and medical communities
- an area of specialization in sports medicine
- All of these answers are correct

diaphysis

What is the main shaft of the bone known as?
- epiphysis
- periosteum
- diaphysis
- articular cartilage

an avulsion fracture

Identify the type of fracture in which an attached tendon or ligament pulls a small piece of the bone to which it attaches away from the rest of the bone.
- a spiral fracture
- a greenstick fracture
- an avulsion fracture
- an oblique fracture

grade 3 sprain

Which of the following grades of sprain involves total tearing of the ligament, which leads to instability of the joint?
- grade 1 sprain
- grade 2 sprain
- grade 4 sprain
- grade 3 sprain

myositis ossificans

Which of the following complications is a result of repeated blows to the same area?
- crepitus
- DOMS
- myositis ossificans
- neuritis

6 to 8 weeks

How long does the treatment of the hamstring strain commonly take?
- 1 to 2 weeks
- 5 to 7 weeks
- 6 to 8 weeks
- 3 to 4 weeks

DOMS

Which of the following conditions occurs 12 hours after the injury and is most intense after 24 to 48 hours?
- neuritis
- myositis ossificans
- crepitus
- DOMS

resting the injured area to eliminate irritation to the tendon

Which of the following is the key to treating tendinitis
- treating it as tendon degeneration
- injecting the area with a steroid
- resting the injured area to eliminate irritation to the tendon
- stretching to improve the sliding ability of the tendon

They communicate freely and work in close cooperation with both athletic trainers and the team coaches to ensure that the athletes achieve an optimal level of fitness

In the context of the sports medicine team, which of the following is a responsibility of strength and conditioning coaches?

- They are required to critically review the training and conditioning program designed by the athletic trainers and be very familiar with what is expected of the athletes on a daily basis

- They communicate freely and work in close cooperation with both athletic trainers and the team coaches to ensure that the athletes achieve an optimal level of fitness

- They are responsible for rehabilitating an injured athlete who is undergoing a rehabilitation program.

- They dictate what an injured athlete can or cannot do when engaging in a strength and conditioning program

osetoarthritis

Which of the following conditions results from a wearing down of articular cartilage?
- osetoarthritis
- bursitis
- tendinosis
- tenosynovitis

the maturation-remodeling phase

Which of the following phases of healing features a realignment or remodeling of scar tissues?
- the proliferative endometrium phase
- the maturation-remodeling phase
- the inflammatory response phase
- the fibroblastic phase

osteoblasts

Which cells lay down extra bone formation over a fracture?
- osteocytes
- osteoblasts
- osteomytes
- osteoclasts

dislocation

A________ occurs when at least one bone in a joint is forced completely out of its normal and proper alignment and must be manually or surgically put back into place.
- sprain
- dislocation
- subluxation
- contusion

delayed-onset muscle soreness

Which of the following is characterized by increased muscle tension, swelling, and resistance to stretching following exercise?
- delayed-onset muscle soreness
- myositis ossificans
- tenosynovitis
- acute-onset muscle soreness

subluxation

What type of injury occurs when a bone comes partially out of its normal articulation then goes right back into place?
- subluxation
- dislocation
- stress fracture
- avulsion fracture

return to play after being asymptomatic for 20 minutes

If an athlete shows any sign of a concussion, all the following should occur except
- assessment of concussive injury using SCAT3
- return to play after being asymptomatic for 20 minutes
- rule out cervical injury
- on-site medical evaluation

the pons

Which of the following parts of the brain controls sleep, posture, respiration, swallowing, and the bladder?
- the cerebellum
- the cerebrum
- the medulla oblongata
- the pons

physician

The ______ is ultimately responsible for deciding when an injured athlete is likely to return to full activity.
- physician
- athletic trainer
- coach
- school nurse

The Concussion Recognition Tool 5

Which of the following tests is developed to help non-medically trained individuals identify the signs and symptoms of potential sport-related concussions?
- The Concussion Recognition Tool 5
- The Immediate Post-Concussion Assessment and Cognitive Test
- The Modified Romberg test
- The Automated Neuropsychological Assessment Metrics

amnesia

Which of the following terms describes the inability of an athlete to remember events after the injury has occurred?
- tinnitus
- amnesia
- nystagmus
- concussion

second impact syndrome

Which of the following can occur if an athlete who sustained a concussion previously returns to play prior to resolution of the symptoms and then receives another head injury?
- chondral separation
- cerebral hyperemia
- epistaxis
- second impact syndrome

- Hip moves out of position
- Heel raises from the floor
- Patient opens their eyes
- Moving hands from the hips

Which of the following are examples of errors that are counted in the Balance Error Scoring System (BESS) and modified-Balance Error Scoring (mBESS) tests? Choose all correct answers for full credit.

- Hip moves out of position
- Patient cannot count to 20
- Patient fails to hold their breath
- Heel raises from the floor
- Patient opens their eyes
- Moving hands from the hips

healthcare professionals

According to the instructions on the SCAT6, the instrument has been designed to be used by:
- parents
- healthcare professionals
- coaches
- anyone who is trained

- spontaneously resolving signs and symptoms
- usually resolves in 7-10 days
- functional, not structural, injury
- a wide variety of signs and symptoms

A concussion is a very difficult injury to define. Which of the following are components of a concussion? Choose all the correct answers for full credit.
- bleeding in the brain
- spontaneously resolving signs and symptoms
- almost always leads to permanent disability
- usually resolves in 7-10 days
- functional, not structural, injury
- a wide variety of signs and symptoms

baseline testing

Determining an athletes ability to recall words in a list and say the names of the months in reverse order during the pre-participation evaluation is referred to as_______________________.
- post-concussion screening
- pre-concussion screening
- ImPACT testing
- baseline testing

annually

How often are pre-participation evaluations required by the VHSL?
- at the beginning of each sports season
- annually
- monthly
- every two years

to rule out bleeding in the brain

Why do patients who have a concussion often undergo a CT scan?
- to monitor blood flow to the brain
- to determine the severity of the concussion
- to detect injury to the neurons of the brain
- to rule out bleeding in the brain

concussion signs and symptoms persist

Which of the following best describes post concussion syndrome?
- bleeding in the brain that carries a 50% chance of death
- additional injury to the brain after the initial concussion
- concussion signs and symptoms persist longer than expected
- concussion signs and symptoms do not fully resolve ever

an injury to the brain that occurs after sustaining a concussion

Which of the following best describes second impact syndrome?
- signs and symptoms of concussion persist longer than expected
- signs and symptoms of concussion never fully resolve
- an injury to the brain that occurs after sustaining a concussion
- a spinal cord injury that results in permanent paralysis

frontal lobe

What is the arrow pointing to in this image?
- occipital lobe
- frontal lobe
- cerebellum
- parietal lobe

brain stem

What is the arrow pointing to in this image?
- forebrain
- midbrain
- diencephalon
- brain stem

temporal lobe

What is the arrow pointing to in this image?
- cerebellum
- pons
- frontal lobe
- temporal lobe

10-14 days

Most concussions heal within what time frame?
- 10-14 days
- 5-7 days
- 4-6 weeks
- 1-2 months

- patient must be able to complete a 5-step return to play protocol
- patient must be symptom-free
- patient must return to school without accommodations

Which of the following must occur before a patient with concussion can return to play? Choose all correct answers for full credit.

- patient must be able to recite the months of the year in reverse order
- patient must be able to complete a 5-step return to play protocol
- patient must complete a 10-step protocol that gradually reintroduces physical exertion
- patient must be symptom-free
- patient must return to school without accommodations

physical and cognitive rest

The most important rehabilitation for a concussion is _________
- range of motion exercises
- eye coordination exercises
- physical and cognitive rest
- balance exercises

tendonitis

What injury do you suspect for this patient?
- Patient is 32-year old male
- Plays pickleball 4 times per week
- Complains of right lateral elbow pain that is worse in the morning, better in the afternoon. Pain increases after playing pickleball.
- Reports pain is 4/10 at rest and 8/10 after playing.
- Pain is located on the right distal lateral humerus and extensor muscle belly

- sprain
- strain
- macrotrauma
- tendonitis

epidural hematoma

Which of the following injuries are immediately life-threatening? Choose all answers for full credit.

- epidural hematoma
- second-impact syndrome
- bursitis
- concussion
- subdural hematoma

- tarsals
- metatarsals
- phalanges

What are the three groups of bones in the foot? Choose only the three correct responses for full credit.
- anterior compartment
- posterior compartment
- tarsals
- metatarsals
- phalanges
- carpals
- metacarpals

anterior inferior iliac spine

What is the origin of the rectus femoris muscle?

pes cavus

What foot type is characterized by its high arch?
- pes cavus
- pes planus
- mortons toe
- plantar fascitis

hallux valgus

Which condition of the foot causes a bunion to form at the first metatarsalphalangeal joint?
- hallux valgus
- digitorum valgus
- sesamoiditis
- bunions do not form at the 1st MTP

5

There are ______ metatarsals in the foot.
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6

fifth

A jones fracture involves a fracture of the neck of the _____ metatarsal.
- first
- third
- fourth
- fifth

four

In the lower leg, there are how many separate compartments containing muscles, tendons, blood vessels and nerves?
- two
- three
- four
- five

False

Mortons toe is a condition in which the first metatarsal is abnormally long. True or False

pes planus

What is another name for flat feet?
- pes planus
- pes equins
- pes cavus
- hallux rigidus

14

How many phalanges are in the foot?
- 9
- 10
- 14
- 15

- Sartorius
- semitendinosus
- gracilis

What muscles attach to the pes anserine? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- Sartorius
- vastus lateralis
- biceps femoris
- semitendinosus
- gracilis
- semimembranosus

superior medial tibia

Where is the pes anserine located?

Plantarflexion

Which of the following is the mechanism of injury for an Achilles tendon rupture?
- Plantarflexion
- Inversion
- Dorsiflexion
- Eversion

- Dorsiflexion
- Plantarflexion
- Inversion
- Eversion

The ankle joint is capable of what movements? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- Dorsiflexion
- Plantarflexion
- Inversion
- Eversion
- Medial rotation

during deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated

When is the anterior cruciate ligament most often injured?
- during the deceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia internally rotated
- during acceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia externally rotated
- during deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated
- during acceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia externally rotated

- vastus lateralis
- vastus medialis

Which two muscles have a proximal attachment to the linea aspera? Choose both correct answers for full credit.
- iliopsoas
- vastus lateralis
- vastus medialis
- rectus femoris

inversion

A(n)______ ankle sprain is most common and often result in injury to the lateral ligaments.
- eversion
- inversion
- dorsiflexion
- plantarflexion

- Anterior talofibular

What is the most commonly sprained ligament in the ankle?
- Anterior tibiofibular
- Anterior talofibular
- Deltoid
- Posterior talofibular

fibula

The lateral malleolus is part of what bone?
- tibia
- navicular
- fibula
- calcaneus

functional tests

Running, jogging and sprinting are examples of
- the Lachman's test.
- varus stress tests.
- functional tests.
- the Apley's compression test.

the deep infrapatellar bursa

Which of the following is the bursa that commonly becomes inflamed from the overuse of the patellar tendon?
- the prepatellar bursa
- the superficial infrapatellar bursa
- the suprapatellar bursa
- the deep infrapatellar bursa

ligaments

Which of the following are the main sources of stability in the knee?
- menisci
- ligaments
- bones
- cartilage

lateral

A patella usually dislocates in what direction?
- lateral
- medial
- anterior
- posterior

peroneus brevis

What muscle is this?
- posterior tibialis
- peroneus brevis
- peroneus longus
- anterior tibialis

- tibialis anterior
- flexor hallucis longus

Which of the following muscles assists with the inversion of the ankle? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- tibialis anterior
- flexor hallucis longus
- peroneus longus
- peroneus brevis
- peroneus tertius

subtalar joint

True inversion and eversion occur at the ______ joint.
- metatarsophalangeal joint
- subtalar joint
- talocrural joint
- midtarsal articulation

2nd metatarsal and 2nd proximal phalange

What two bones form the 2nd metatarsophalangeal joint in the foot?
- 2nd and 2nd cuneiform
- 2nd distal phalange and 2nd middle phalange
- 2nd metatarsal and 2nd proximal phalange
- 2nd metatarsal and 2nd distal phalange

lateral to the tibial crest

The belly of the anterior tibialis muscle is located:
- posterior to the tibial crest
- superior to the tibial crest
- lateral to the tibial crest
- medial to the tibial crest

- flexor hallucis longus
- flexor digitorum longus
- posterior tibialis

Which of the following muscles are located in the deep posterior compartment? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- flexor hallucis longus
- flexor digitorum longus
- posterior tibialis
- gastrocnemius
- soleus
- extensor hallucis longus

metatarsal arch

What structure is above the white?
- medial longitudinal arch
- metatarsal arch
- lateral longitudinal arch
- medial calcaneal tuberacle

- the patient moving the joint by contracting the muscles around the joint

Assessment of active range of motion involves:
- the patient moving the joint by contracting the muscles around the joint
- the clinician moves the patients joint while the patient remains relaxed
- the clinician provides resistance as the patient moves the joint by contracting the muscles around the joint
- an isometric contraction

lateral

The anterior compartment is located _____ to the tibial crest.
- superior
- medial
- lateral
- inferior

Deltoid ligament

All of these provide stability to the lateral aspect of the talocrural joint except for:
- Anterior talofibular ligament
- Calcaneofibular ligament
- Posterior talofibular ligament
- Deltoid ligament

eversion

The main action of the muscles located in the lateral compartment is:
- plantarflexion
- dorsiflexion
- eversion
- inversion

anterior translation of the talus

The anterior talofibular ligament controls:
- posterior translation of the talus
- plantarflexion of the subtalar joint
- anterior translation of the talus
- dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint
- dorsiflexion of the talocrucal joint

- anterior tibiotalar
- posterior tibiotalar
- tibiocalcaneal
- tibionavicular

The deltoid ligament is composed of four ligaments. Which of the following are parts of the deltoid ligament? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- talocrural
- anterior tibiotalar
- posterior tibiotalar
- tibiocalcaneal
- tibionavicular
- anterior talofibular
- calcaneofibular

extensor hallucis longus

The name of the muscle that moves the first toe into extension is:
- extensor digitorum longus
- extensor hallucis longus
- flexor hallucis longus
- flexor digitorum longus

abduction

Movement away from the midline of the body is called______.
- flexion
- extension
- rotation
- abduction

compare to the contralateral (opposite) side

How can we determine if a patient has normal range of motion at a particular joint?
- consult our ROM manual
- ask the patient if that is as far as the joint moves
- compare to the contralateral (opposite) side
- palpate the joint
- none of the above

Navicular

What is the highlighted structure?
- Navicular
- cuboid
- talus
- cuneiform

3rd middle phalange

What is the highlighted structure?
- 3rd middle phalange
- 2nd middle phalange
- 3rd distal phalange

soleus

All of these are located in the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg except for:
- posterior tibialis
- flexor hallucis longus
- soleus
- flexor digitorum longus

passive

Which of the following types of Range of Motion (ROM) requires the examiner to move the joint for the patient?
- active
- passive
- resistive
- manual
- all of the above

Palpation

When determining the areas that the patient is most point tender during the evaluation, you are actively engaging in what portion of the evaluation?
- History
- Observation
- Palpation
- Special Testing

passive

Which of the following types of range of motion requires the examiner to move the joint for the patient?
- active
- passive
- resistive
- manual

to determine what care is required, such as calling 911

What are the two main purposes of the musculoskeletal evaluation?
- to determine the diagnosis of the injury
- to determine what care is required, such as calling 911
- to determine how strong a patient is in a particular joint or joints
- to determine how much pain the patient is in

- peripheral nerves
- capillaries
- arteries

What types of structures are being tested during the neurovascular exam? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- peripheral nerves
- capillaries
- arteries
- lymph nodes
- muscles
- bones

- tibiofemoral joint
- patellofemoral joint
- proximal tibiofibular joint

Which of the following are articulations in the knee? Choose all correct answers for full credit.
- tibiofemoral joint
- patellofemoral joint
- proximal tibiofibular joint
- distal tibiofibular joint

- adductor tubercle
- tibial condyle
- femoral condyle

Which of the following structures are located on the medial aspect of the knee? Check all correct answers for full credit.
- Gerdy's tubercle
- adductor tubercle
- tibial condyle
- femoral condyle
- fibular head

- Pain description, including rating
- Mechanism of injury
- Previous history
- Timing of injury
- Activities of daily living
- Medications

(ALL)

What are the categories of questions the athletic trainer should ask during the history phase of a musculoskeletal evaluation? Choose all correct answers for full credit.

- Pain description, including rating
- Mechanism of injury
- Previous history
- Timing of injury
- Activities of daily living
- Medications

Soleus

What muscle is this?
- tibialis posterior
- extensor digitorum longus
- gastrocnemius
- soleus

- tibia, fibula and calcaneus

The talocrural joint is comprised of which bones?
- talus, calcaneus and fibula
- tibia, fibula and calcaneus
- talus, tibia and fibia
- talus, fibula and tibia