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What is the first step in gene expression and the initial level at which gene expression is regulated?
transcription
What does RNA polymerase do?
catalyzes polymerization of ribonucleoside 5' triphosphates (NTPs) as directed by DNA template
How many subunits does bacterial RNA polymerase?
5
What does the alpha subunit do in bacterial RNA polymerase?
identifies the correct sites for transcription initiation
What is a promoter?
gene sequence to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription
6 nucleotides long
located at 10 and 35 base pairs upstream of transcription start site
What is the functional importance of the -10 and -35 regions of promoters?
genes with promoters other than these are transcribed less efficiently (alpha subunit binds to both -10 and -35 regions)
What is done to DNA to allow transcription to begin?
polymerase unwinds 12-14 bases to form an open promoter complex
When is the alpha subunit release from the polymerase?
after the addition of about 10 nucleotides
What happens during elongation?
polymerase maintains unwound region of about 15 base pairs
Where is the polymerase active site contained?
channel between the beta and beta' subunits
RNA synthesis continues until the polymerase encounters a ___
stop signal
What is the most common stop signal?
symmetrical inverted repeat of GC-rich sequence followed by 7 A residues
What terminates transcription of the GC-rich inverted repeat?
transcription results in segment of RNA that forms stable stem-loop structure which terminates transcription
What three enzymes are involved in lactose metabolism? What does each do?
enzymes only present when lactose is present
1. beta galactosidase: cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose
2. lactose permease: transports lactose into cell
3. transacetylase: inactivates toxic thiogalactosides that are transported into cell with lactose
What is an operon?
a set of genes transcribed under the control of an operator gene
What are the two operon loci that control transcription?
1. o (operator): adjacent to transcription initiation site
2. i (not in operon): encodes protein that bind to operator
The normal i gene product is a ___, which ___ transcription when bound to o.
repressor
blocks
What is the central principle of gene regulation?
control of transcription is mediated by interaction of regulatory proteins with specific DNA sequences
How do cis-acting control elements and other proteins differ in geen expression?
cis-acting elements affect expression of genes on the same DNA molecule
other proteins affect expression of genes on other chromosomes
What's the difference between negative and positive control?
negative control: regulatory protein (repressor) blocks transcription
positive control: regulatory proteins activate transcription
Explain the positive control of the lac operon by glucose in E coli
1. presence of glucose repressions expression on lac operon
2. glucose decreases then cAMP levels increase (positive control system)
3. cAMP binds to regulatory protein catabolite activator protein (CAP)
4. CAP binds to target DNA sequence upstream which facilitates RNA polymerase binding to promoter
Eukaryotic cells have ___ RNA polymerases that transcribe different classes of genes.
3
Transcription takes place on ___ because why?
chromatin
because regulation of chromatin structure is important in regulating gene expression
What does RNA polymerase II synthesize?
mRNA
What are general transcription factors?
proteins involved in transcription from polyermase II promoters
What promoter sequence does the TATA box resemble?
the -10 sequence of bacterial promoters
How many general transcription factors are required for initiation of transcription?
5
What transcription factors bind with RNA polymerase II to form the preinitiation complex?
TFIIB, TFIIF, TFIIE, TFIIH
What is transcription factor TFIID?
multiple subunits including TATA binding protein (TBP) and other subunits bind to the lnr, DCE, MTE, and DPE sequences
What is the transcription mediator?
protein complex of more than 20 subunits
interacts with general transcription factors and RNA polymerase
What binds to nonphosphorylated carboxy terminal domain (CTD) of polymerase II and is released following phosphorylation of CTD when transcription initiates?
mediator complex
How does phosphorylated CTD facilitate mRNA synthesis and processing?
binds elongation and processing factors
RNA polymerase I transcribes ___ genes
rRNA
Transcription of rRNA genes yields a large 45S pre-rRNA that is processed to yield what?
28S, 18S, 5.8S rRNAs
Promoters of rRNA genes are recognized by two ___ which recruit ___ to form initiation complex.
transcription factors
RNA polymerase I
Genes for what are transcribed by polymerase III?
tRNA, 5S rRNA, some small RNA (expressed from three types of promoters)
What do gene transfer assays identify?
cis-acting regulatory sequences in expression of eukaryotic genes
What are enhancers?
regulatory sequences located farther away from start site
Activity of enhancers ___ (does or does not) depend on their distance from or orientation with the transcription site.
does not
How do enhancers function?
by binding transcription factors that regulate RNA polymerase (like promoters)
What is DNA looping?
process allows transcription factor bound to distant enhancer to interact with proteins associated with RNA polymerase/mediator complex at promoter
What do insulators do for the activity of an enhancer?
maintain specificity
chromosomes into independent domains, prevent enhancers from acting on promoters located in adjacent domain
What are topologically associating domains (TADs)?
discrete chromosomal domains
enhancers and promoters within a TAD interact frequently but rarely with elements in other domains
What is the main protein that binds insulators in vertebrates?
CTCF
What do transcriptional activators do? What do their two independent domains?
bind to regulatory DNA sequences and stimulate transcription
1. one region binds DNA
2. one region stimulates transcription by interacting with other proteins (ex. mediator)
What does the zinc finger DNA binding domain do?
binds zinc ions and folds into loops ("fingers") that bind DNA
What does the helix-turn-helix DNA binding domain do?
one helix contacts the DNA and the other helices lie across the complex to stabilize the interaction
What are homeodomain proteins?
proteins that are important in regulation of gene expression during embryonic development
Leucine zipper and helix-loop-helix proteins contain DNA-binding domains formed by ___ of two ___
dimerization
polypeptide chains
different members of each family can dimerize with each other (combinations can form an expanded array of factors)
Activation domains stimulate transcription by what two mechanisms?
1. interaction with mediator proteins and general transcription factors
2. interaction with coactivators to modify chromatin structure
Transcription can also be regulated at ___
elongation
What do negative regulatory factors do (NELF-negative elongation factors and DSIF)?
polymerase pauses within 50 nucleotides following initiation
What is the basic unit of chromatin?
nucleosome: 147 base pairs of DNA wrapped around two molecules of each histone H2A, H2B, H3, H4
Chromatin can be altered by ___ and ___
histone modifications
nucleosome rearrangements
What is histone acetylation?
amino-terminal tail domains of core histones are rich in lysine and can be modified by acetylation
Transcriptional activators and repressors are associated with ___ and ___ respectively
histone acetyltransferases (HAT)
histone deacetylases (HDAC)
How does acetylation increase the availability of the DNA template for transcription?
neutralizes positive charge on lysine, this relaxes chromatin structure
How is histone modified?
by methylation of lysine and arginine residues, phosphorylation of serine residues, and addition of small peptides (ubiquitin and SUMO) to lysine residues
modifications occur at specific amino acid residues in histone tails
How do histone modifications affect gene expression?
altering chromatin properties and providing binding sites for proteins (activate or repress transcription)
What are binding sites for proteins that induce chromatin condensation and formation of heterochromatin?
methylated H3 lysine-9 and -27 residues
Promoters and enhancers have distinct chromatin features, are free of ___, and are thus accessible for binding transcription factors. These regions can be digested with ___
nucleosomes
DNase (they are DNase hypersensitive sites
What are chromatin remodeling factors? What can they do?
protein complexes that alter contacts between DNA and histones
reposition nucleosomes, change conformation of nucleosomes, eject nucleosomes from DNA
Following initiation of transcription, elongation is facilitated by ___ associated with the phosphorylated ___ of RNA polymerase II
elongation factors
C-terminal domain
Elongation factors include what?
histone modifying enzymes and chromatin remodeling factors
What is epigenetic inheritance?
transmission of information that is not in the DNA sequence
How does histone modification lead to stable patterns of modified chromatin?
modifications can regulate one another
What is DNA methylation?
methyl groups are added at the 5-carbon position of C that precede G (CpG dinucleotides)
controls transcription in eukaryotes, correlated with transcriptional repression
mechanism for epigenetic inheritance
What is genomic imprinting?
expression of some genes depends on whether they come from the mother or father
What do miRNAs do?
act by RNA interference pathway to inhibit translation or induce degradation of homologous mRNA
What do noncoding RNA molecules do?
form complexes with proteins that modify chromatin and recruit these complexes to their sites of transcription (regulates expression of neighboring genes)
How do IncRNAs work?
repress target genes by forming complexes with Polycomb Repressive Complex2 (PRC2)
associate with different chromatin-modifying enzymes and function as repressors or activators
act in trans by recruiting chromatin-modifying complexes to distant target genes
___ are used immediately for protein synthesis while still being transcribed
bacterial miRNA
How are ribosomal RNAs derived in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
Eukaryotes: four rRNAs 18S, 5.8S, 28S, 5S (5S rRNA transcribed from separate gene)
Prokaryotes: cleaved to form three rRNA (16S, 23S, 5S)
What is a ribozyme?
an enzyme in which RNA rather than protein is responsible for catalytic activity
tRNAs start as long pre-tRNAs in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Processing of the 5' end of the pre-tRNA is cleaved by the enzyme ___
RNase P
In eukaryotes, pre-mRNAs are extensively modified before ___
export from the nucleus
The 5' end of the transcript is modified by addition of a ___. What does it do?
7-methylguanosine cap
the cap stabilizes RNA and aligns it on the ribosome during translation
At the 3' end, a poly-A tail is added by ___. Signals for ___ include what?
polyadenylation
signals include conserved hexanucleotide and a G-U rich downstream sequence element
Recognition of the polyadenylation signal leads to ___, ___, and ___ of the mRNA
termination of transcription
cleavage
polyadenylation
Splicing proceeds in what two steps?
1. cleavage at 5' splice site and joining of 5' end of intron to A within intron (intron forms a loop)
2. cleavage at 3' splice site and simultaneous ligation of exons excises intron loop
What are three important sequence elements of pre-mRNAs?
1. 5' splice site
2. 3' splice site
3. branch point within intron
What are spliceosomes?
five types of small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs): U1, U2, U3, U4, U5, U6
snRNAs are complexed with 6-10 protein molecules to form ___
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs)
How are spliceosomes assembled?
1. binding of U1 snRNP to 5' splice site (SS)
2. base pairing between 5' SS sequence and 5' end of U1 snRNA
3. U2 snRNP binds to branch point
4. other snRNPs join complex and act together to form intron loop and maintain association of 5' and 3' exons so they can be ligated
5. excision of the intron
What is RNA editing?
alters the protein-coding sequences of mRNAs
What is pre-mRNA?
90% of the sequence are introns, degraded in the nucleus after splicing, processed mRNAs are protected by capping and polyadenylation
How are eukaryote mRNAs degraded?
initiated by shortening of poly-A tails
How are eukaryotic mRNAs regulated?
extracellular signals such as growth factors and hormones
degradation regulated by siRNA and miRNA