Public Health CDC Volume 2

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108 Terms

1
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A primary or definitive host is a host in which a disease organism ___________.

matures and goes through reproductive stage

2
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The ability of an agent to produce clinical disease in a host is its __________.

pathogenicity

3
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Rabies is spread by _________.

direct contact

4
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Giving hepatitis A vaccine and malaria prophylaxis to deploying troops controls what link in the chain of infection?

susceptible person

5
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In countries where pork is eaten, individuals may be at risk of trichinosis infection when the pork is undercooked. This is an example of what intrinsic factor in the occurrence of disease?

diet

6
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Using night soil as fertilizer allows the transmission of such diseases as typhoid, dysentery, amebiasis and hepatitis. Preventing transmission of these diseases involves educating people on ___________________.

proper disposal of human wastes

7
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The environmental factor that has the greatest effect on hay fever sufferers is ___________.

climate

8
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What environmental factor relates to the fact that quinine, used to treat malaria, comes from tree bark?

biological

9
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Numeric facts or data that have been assembled, classified, and tabulated to present significant information about a given subject are called ________.

statistics

10
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What number is most commonly used as a measurement of central tendency?

Mean

11
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Public Health workers use attack rates when investigating foodborne illness outbreaks to determine the ___________.

food most likely responsible for outbreak

12
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If 30 out of 90 people who ate at a base picnic became ill, the attack rate per 100 persons is ______.

33.30

13
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A method that is used to study two similar groups by administering a vaccine, special diet or some other factor to one group while withholding it from the other group is called ___________.

experimental

14
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A method that is used to study different groups under natural conditions is called the ____________.

observational

15
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Which study method traces the source of a food poisoning outbreak, or examines STD incidence and prevalence?

Uncontrolled observation

16
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In an outbreak investigation, what step do you take after confirming the existence of an outbreak?

Establish or verify the diagnosis

17
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In what step of an outbreak investigation do you construct an epidemic curve or graph of cases that is plotted according to time of onset?

Step 5 (perform descriptive epidemiology)

18
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What form of meningitis occurs most often in children under 5 years old?

Haemophilus

19
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What form of meningitis, which is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis, is normally called "aseptic meningitis"?

Viral meningitis

20
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What is the most common type of streptococcal infection?

sore throat

21
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The Air Force instituted the Influenza Surveillance Program to identify new strains of influenza viruses This program is also known as ____________.

Project Gargle

22
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During what stage of tuberculosis do bacilli encapsulate and remain in the alveoli of the lung until conditions favor growth?

Dormant

23
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What tuberculin skin test is used by the Air force to screen people for tuberculosis?

Mantoux test

24
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How long after receiving a BCG vaccination will most people revert to a negative tuberculin skin test?

10 years

25
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To confirm a diagnosis of tuberculosis, it is essential to perform a __________.

sputum culture

26
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Where is the original AF form 2453, Tuberculosis Detection and Control Data, filed?

Patient's outpatient medical record

27
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During what period of development is syphilis first detectable through laboratory testing?

Primary stage

28
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Which laboratory test measures antibodies to the causative organism of syphilis?

Treponemal testing

29
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What are you looking at if you see a raised, table-top or mushroom- like papule with a pale, white soggy appearance on the genitals or rectum?

Condylomata lata

30
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Gonococcal epididymitis is an example of which type of gonorrhea?

Complicated genital infection

31
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What is the most common complication of the female gonorrhea infections?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

32
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When a patient indicates difficulty in taking multi-dose medications, a healthcare provider may select a single dose injection. This is an example of which consideration for treatment of gonorrhea?

Reliability

33
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What is a chronic infectious disease of the conjunctiva and cornea that produces photophobia, pain and excessive tearing?

Trachoma

34
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What is considered to be the standard test for identifying chlamydia in genital infections?

tissue culture

35
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Which diagnostic method is the quickest for identifying chlamydia infections?

skin scraping

36
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Which diagnostic method is the most specific and sensitive to confirm herpes?

tissue culture

37
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What disease starts with a pimple-like sore and if left untreated, forms a bubo in most patients?

Lymphogranuloma venereum

38
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Which symptom does NOT assist healthcare providers in diagnosing AIDS?

Acute HSV1 infection

39
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Which diagnostic method is the most specific for identifying individuals within high risk groups who are positive for HIV?

Western blot

40
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There are two keys to conducting a successful interview concerning STDs. The first is to be knowledgeable. What is the second?

Interviewer must control the conversation

41
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What method of preventing STDs among sexually active people is most effective?

Using condoms properly

42
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Which form of hepatitis is most commonly found in child development centers?

A

43
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Which form of hepatitis has an average incubation period of 60 to 90 days?

B

44
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What must be present for the delta virus to infect and cause illness?

Hepatitis B

45
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In order for IG to be effective, how soon must it be given after exposure to hepatitis?

Within 2 weeks

46
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Who is at highest risk of hepatitis B infection?

Dentist

47
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What is the key to effectively controlling and preventing the spread of viral hepatitis?

education and sanitary controls

48
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What is an acute disease that has sudden onset of profuse watery stools, occasional vomiting, rapid dehydration and circulatory collapse?

Cholera

49
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How does a healthcare provider notify PH of a suspected communicable disease?

AF Form 570

50
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What is one source of endogenous infection for a patient in a hospital?

Poor personal hygiene of the patient

51
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Which method is the most effective way to avoid transmission of infection from hospital employee to patient?

Frequent and thorough hand washing

52
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Which office is responsible for maintaining proper disinfection and sterilization of hospital supplies?

Central Supply

53
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Which foodborne illness has an average incubation time of 18 hours, and symptoms varying from nausea to severe headache, chills, fever, violent retching, colic and diarrhea?

Salmonellosis

54
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Which food is susceptible to contamination by streptococcal organisms if improperly handled?

Potato salad

55
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Which disease is more common than both salmonellosis and shigellosis?

Campylobacter enteritis

56
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Which source is the most common cause of foodborne intoxication?

Bacteria

57
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Who should give training on foodborne illness investigation to medical personnel who have initial patient contact?

Public Health

58
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AF Form 431, Food Poisoning Outbreak - Individual Case History, is completed to _____________.

list the foods consumed for 72 hours and record symptoms with onsets and duration

59
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Immunizations for rabies after exposure to the disease must be given prior to the onset of encephalitis, which is in what stage of rabies?

Stage 3 (Acute neurological phase)

60
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What is the primary reservoir of rabies in most foreign countries?

Dogs

61
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When an animal is suspected in a bite case on base, who has the responsibility for determining if the animal has rabies?

Army veterinarian

62
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Which immunization is given to treat personnel exposed to rabies?

Human diploid cell vaccine

63
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Who has the ultimate responsibility for ensuring personnel are protected from vectorborne disease?

Base commander

64
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Who established the frequency for surveying disease vectors on base?

Aerospace Medicine Council

65
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Who determines the need for aerial spraying of pesticides to control vectors or medically important pests?

Public Health

66
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Who provides vector identification for bases in the CONUS?

Air Force Institute for Operational Health

67
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What is the first classification or grouping within the animal or plant kingdom?

Phylum

68
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In most cases, what is the lowest major division in the classification system of insects?

Species

69
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Which animal has an endoskeletal structure?

Human

70
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Which type of metamorphosis is a growth cycle that includes four stages: egg, larva, pupa and adult?

Complete metamorphosis

71
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Flies, mosquitoes, midges and punkies belong to which order of insects?

Diptera

72
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Which mosquito genus deposits its eggs so they are attached together to form rafts that float on the water?

Culex

73
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During which stage do mosquitoes abstain from feeding?

Pupal

74
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Which disease is sometimes called "breakbone fever"?

Dengue Fever

75
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Which mosquitoes are vectors for dengue fever?

Aedes

76
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Which mosquitoes transmit all four forms of malaria?

Anopheles

77
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Where do most complications develop when a human is infected with malaria?

Brain

78
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How far above the ground should New Jersey traps be located to attract the most mosquitoes?

6 ft

79
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What type of surveillance method uses a paper-towel-wrapped tongue depressor emerged in a one-pint, black jar that has been half-filled with water?

Ovitrap for mosquito eggs

80
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Which is an example of an environmental control for mosquitoes?

Filling low-lying areas with dirt

81
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Whose responsibility is it to recommend that low-lying areas be filled with dirt to control mosquitoes?

Base medical service

82
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Replacing the weather stripping on a door and patching screens are two examples of which type of mosquito control?

Environmental

83
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Using young dragonflies to control mosquitoes is an example of which type of pest control?

Biological

84
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Approximately how many times per day do body lice feed?

5

85
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What is the best control method for body lice?

Personal cleanliness

86
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What type of fly is the most common?

House fly

87
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The term "maggot" refers to which stage of fly development?

Larval

88
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Which disease is transmitted by fleas?

Plauge

89
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How is endemic typhus (murine typhus) transmitted?

Feces of a flea rubbed into a wound

90
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Which is an example of a hard tick?

American dog tick

91
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Which disease is a bacterial disease spread by ticks?

Tularemia

92
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What do you call the transmission of rickettsial pathogens from adult ticks through the egg to subsequent larval, nymphal and adult stages?

Transovarial

93
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How many legs do larval mites have?

6

94
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Which type of mite transmits a disease called "Tsutsugamushi disease" or "scrub typhus"?

Chiggers

95
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What is the most abundant cockroach species in the United States?

German cockroach

96
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What is the most effective method of controlling cockroaches?

Denying access to food or moisture

97
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What is the vector for Chagas disease?

Kissing bugs

98
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Which type of venom produces raised areas on the skin that may itch or be intensely painful?

Urticating toxin

99
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Which is the largest and most common domestic rat?

Norway rat

100
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Which is the best method of controlling rodents?

Sanitation and physical controls