VTNE prep - mosby's comprehensive

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Last updated 11:28 PM on 8/26/26
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70 Terms

1
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in qualitative and semi-quantitative urine analysis, which type of substance is exogenous?

phenosulfonphthalein

2
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urine samples should be analyzed within _____ for maximum valid information

3
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normally freshly voided urine of many species is clear. exceptions include which of the following species?

all of the above

4
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it is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. an adequate sample or fresh urine is considered to be:

5ml

5
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when assessing a patient’s diet, which urine specimen collection time is likely to be most helpful?

3 to 6 hours postprandial (after a meal)

6
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which of the following is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting a hematology test in a parrot?

EDTA

7
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to maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio, sample tubes should be filled to at least what capacity?

90%

8
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blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be:

lipemic

9
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which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture?

cystocentesis

10
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pollakiuria is defined as:

frequent urination

11
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a “smudge cell” is a

nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smear making

12
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MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration) is calculated by multiplying:

Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV

13
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MCV (mean corpuscular volume) is calculated by

multiplying PCV by RBC count and multiplying by total RBC count

14
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mean corpuscular hemoglobin is

defined as the mean weight of the Hb compared to the RBC within the cell

15
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which is true of reticulocytes

Wright’s stain causes polychromatophilic staining, or diffuse, purple-red color

16
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basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue staining granules within

erythrocytes

17
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which of the following is likely the most representative method of analyzing urine solute osmolar concentration?

osmometry

18
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NRBCs are normal in which species?

avian and reptile

19
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an increased WBC count is indicative of

leukocytosis

20
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which of the following describes an elevated platelet count caused by bone marrow dysfunction or pathology?

thrombocythemia

21
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how is toxocara canis identified microscopically in the diagnostic stage?

dark brown, thick-walled egg, with a pitted eggshell

22
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ancylostoma caninum can be contracted by which route?

entry through the skin

23
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the intermediate host of dipylidium caninum is the

flea

24
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Signs that would indicate a dog has a severe infection

of Otodectes cynotis would include:

shaking head, scratching ears

25
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Ixodes scapularis is the vector for:

lyme disease

26
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which of the following is zoonotic?

trichuris vulpis

27
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Which order do the biting lice belong to?

mallophaga

28
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which of the following is best diagnosed using the baermann test?

aelurostrongylus abstrusus

29
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one of the great advantages of centrifugal flotation technique is to

Detect Giardia oocysts and Trichuris ova more efficiently than regular flotation technique

30
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for which parasite is the cellophane tape method useful?

oxyuris equi

31
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which of the following is the parasite that is called “walking dandruff”

cheyletiella spp.

32
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a hexacanth is the detectable, infective stage of a

tapeworm

33
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giardia and leishmania are examples of

flagellates

34
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which of the following tests is best for removing lungworm larvae from small samples of feces?

baermann

35
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which subgroup do tapeworms fall under?

cestodes

36
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when diagnosing dirofilaria immitis on a knott’s test, the microfilaria must be differentiated from which of the following nonpathogenic filarial larvae?

acanthocheilonema

37
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the life stage of the flea found on the skin of the host is the

adult stage

38
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the prepatent period for trichuris vulpis is

5-10 weeks

39
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sucking lice have which characteristic?

narrower head than the thorax

40
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hyostrongylus rubidus is the red stomach worm of

pigs

41
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the preferred fixative for most cytology specimens is

methanol

42
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a refractometer may not provide accurate measurements of total solids for samples characterized as

chylous

43
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the ideal sample collection device for most cytology samples of fistulated lesions is a

rayon swab (cotton swab)

44
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for collection of pleural fluid, patients may be placed in ______ recumbency

ventral

45
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the preferred sample preparation technique when cells are unusually fragile is

modified compression smear

46
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the preferred sample preparation technique when samples are highly viscous is

starfish smear

47
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cytology samples should be placed in fixative for a minimum time of

60 seconds

48
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the stain that is best for staining of mast cell granules is

giemsa

49
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a fragmented neutrophil nucleus is described as

karyorrhexis

50
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a round cell that contains a fringe border and fine nuclear chromatin is most likely a

plasma cell

51
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a sample characterized by the presence of more than 70% mononuclear cells with few neutrophils is described as

granulomatous

52
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the presence of increased numbers of homogeneous populations of the same cell type with no evidence of malignant characteristics within cells is described as

hyperplasia

53
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noninflammatory, nonneoplastic lesions include

hematoma

54
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a common fungal organism seen in ear cytology samples is

malassezia

55
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a common organism seen in oral cytology samples and considered normal flora is

simonsiella

56
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a lymph node sample containing 90% small lymphocytes, a few plasma cells, medium and large lymphocytes, and macrophages is characterized by

normal

57
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the preferred stain for core bone marrow samples is

giemsa

58
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a chylous effusion contains increased numbers of

mature lymphocytes

59
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a sample containing a mixture of parabasal, intermediate, and superficial cells with RBCs and neutrophils likely indicates

proestrus

60
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the nonaspiration biopsy technique is preferred for samples that are

vascular

61
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what happens to frequency as the wavelength of x-ray increases?

it decreases

62
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which best describes ionizing electromagnetic radiation?

it is characterized by the energy contained in a photon

63
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what are properties of xrays?

they travel in straight lines and have wave like properties

64
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in the diagnostic range, most xrays are

bremsstrahlung and braking radiation

65
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what controls the contrast on the radiograph?

kVp

66
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what controls the density/exposure on the radiograph?

mAs

67
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exposure factors for a thorax are 10 mAs and 60 kVp. the film is too light and density needs to be doubled. what technique should be used for the radiograph?

200 mAs, 60 kVp

68
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to minimize magnification and penumbra, a technician should _____ the SID and ______ the SOD

increase source-image distance

increase source-object distance

69
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the heel effect is less noticeable with

smaller film and longer SID

70
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