Biology Exam

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151 Terms

1
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What is the correct order of the classification system from the most general to most specific?

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.

2
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Who developed the system of binomial nomenclature?

Carl Linnaeus.

3
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What are the rules associated with binomial nomenclature?

It is a two-word naming system based on Latin; the first letter of the genus name is capitalized, and the whole name is italicized.

4
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What are the key differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleoid region, no organelles, are smaller, and can be anaerobic, while eukaryotic cells have a nucleus, organelles, are larger, and are aerobic.

5
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describe characteristics of viruses

microscopic, acellular infective agents, that consist of nucleic acid in a protein coat and can only replicate inside a living host cell.

6
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What is the difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria?

Gram positive bacteria stain purple due to a thick peptidoglycan layer, while Gram negative bacteria stain pink due to a thinner peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.

7
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what are the 3 groups of archaebacteria

methanogens, halophiles, and thermophiles.

8
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what environment do methanogens thrive in

oxygen free environments(underwater sediments, marshes, and digestive tracts of animals) where they produce methane.

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what environment do halophiles thrive in

high salt environments, such as salt lakes and salt mines

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what environment do thermoacidophiles thrive in

extreme heat and acidic environments, such as hot springs and volcanic vents

11
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what is a dichotomous key and its purpose

tool that allows identification of organisms by answering a series of questions that will lead to a correct name of the organism based on its characteristics.

12
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What is the main difference between convergent and divergent evolution?

Divergent evolution produces homologous structures with similar features but different functions; convergent evolution produces analogous structures with similar functions but different ancestors.

13
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Define sexual dimorphism.

Sexual dimorphism refers to the physical differences between sexes of the same species.

14
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How does sexual dimorphism relate to sexual selection?

Individuals with certain traits that exhibit sexual dimorphism are more attractive to mates, signaling health and improving reproductive success.

15
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What is temporal isolation in prezygotic isolation?

Temporal isolation occurs when species breed at different times or seasons, preventing them from mating.

16
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What does habitat isolation refer to in reproductive isolation?

Habitat isolation occurs when two species live in different habitats and do not meet, preventing mating.

17
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Describe the mechanism of behavioral isolation.

Behavioral isolation occurs when species have different mating behaviors or songs that prevent them from mating.

18
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What is mechanical isolation?

Mechanical isolation occurs when reproductive organs of different species are incompatible, preventing mating.

19
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What is gametic isolation?

Gametic isolation occurs when the sperm of one species is unable to fertilize the eggs of another species.

20
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What is hybrid inviability in postzygotic isolation?

Hybrid inviability occurs when hybrids are produced but fail to develop to reproductive maturity.

21
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What is hybrid infertility?

Hybrid infertility occurs when hybrids fail to produce functional gametes, rendering them unable to reproduce.

22
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What is hybrid breakdown?

Hybrid breakdown refers to the phenomenon where hybrids can live and reproduce, but their offspring are either infertile or unable to survive.

23
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What is Darwin's theory?

biogeography, homologous features, analogous features, vestigial features, and competition with population

24
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what is biogeography

when species move to a new habitat and adapt to their new environments, leading to changes in their distribution and evolution.

25
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what are homologous features

similar features in organisms that share an ancestor, but may have different functions

26
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what are analogous features

similar features in organisms that have different ancestors but serve similar functions.

27
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what are vestigial features

traits that have lost their original function through evolution.

28
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what is the theory of competition with population

the interaction between individuals of the same or different species that are in competition for limited resources like food, space, or mates.

29
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what are lamracks 2 theory’s ?

use and disuse- used structures become larger and stronger over time

inheritance of acquired characteristics- organisms can pass on gained characteristics

30
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What is Cuvier's theory?

Catastrophism-catastrophes lead to extinction of species, they could then be replaced by new ones.

31
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What was lyells theory

That geological changes are slow and gradual, the natural laws that effect these changes are constant

32
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what was linnaeus theory

new species could arise through different mechanisms

33
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What is directional selection?

the change in a phenotype or genotype of a population in one direction away from the mean (average) in a particular environment over time

34
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Describe disruptive selection.

disruptive selection favors multiple extreme versions of traitsover intermediate traits, leading to increased variation within a population.

35
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What is stabilizing selection?

It favors average traits in a population over extreme traits.

36
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Define a genetic bottleneck.

A significant reduction in the size of a population that limits genetic diversity.

37
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What are long term consequences of a genetic bottleneck on a population?

A population may be less able to adapt and evolve, leading to a higher risk of extinction and loss of genetic variants.

38
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What are the symptoms of altitude sickness?

Headache, lack of coordination, restlessness, loss of appetite, dizziness, nausea, and difficulty breathing.

39
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What treatments are recommended for altitude sickness?

Rest, hydration, and possibly medication to alleviate symptoms.

40
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What are the symptoms of asthma?

Persistent cough, wheezing, difficulty breathing.

41
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What treatments are available for asthma?

Use of inhalers and avoiding triggers.

42
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What are the symptoms of emphysema?

Shortness of breath, cough, wheezing, tight chest, fatigue, and bluish skin.

43
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What is a primary treatment approach for emphysema?

Exercise and no smoking

44
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What are the symptoms of bronchitis?

Cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, chest pain, fever, fatigue, runny nose, and sore throat.

45
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what is the treatment for bronchitis

resting, fluid, home remedies(tea)

46
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What is a health risk of increased heart rate

If her heart rate is too fast too often, it may prevent her heart from pumping enough oxygenated blood to the body.

47
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What factors affect a person's stroke volume?

Physical fitness, body position, hydration status, and heart health.

48
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What is the definition of natural selection?

The process by which organisms better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce.

49
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What is the difference between artificial selection and natural selection?

Natural selection occurs based on environmental factors, while artificial selection is driven by human intervention.

50
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What is the flow of oxygen through the respiratory tract?

Oxygen enters the body through the nose, travels to the pharynx, then to the trachea, through the bronchi, bronchioles, and into the alveoli, where it diffuses into capillaries(carbon dioxide goes from capillary to alveoli) and is carried throughout the body.

51
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What is IRV

IRV is the amount of air that can be inhaled deeply after a regular inhalation.(a deep breath in)

52
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What is TV

TV is the amount of air inhaled or exhaled in a regular breath.(your regular breathing)

53
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What is ERV

ERV is the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation.(deep breath out)

54
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What is RV?

RV is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a full exhalation.

55
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What is TLC

TLC is the maximum amount of air the lungs can hold

56
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What is FRC

FRC is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation.

57
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What is VC

VC is the total air volume that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation.(deep breath out after a deep breath in)

58
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what is IC

the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a regular exhale(deep breath in after a regular breath out)

59
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What are the three different types of blood vessels?

Arteries, veins, and capillaries.

60
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Which blood vessel has the highest blood pressure?

Arteries.

61
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Which blood vessel has the lowest blood pressure?

Veins.

62
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What structures help arteries perform their function?

Thick, stretchy walls. the walls need to be stretchy that way they can pump blood throughout the body at a higher pressue.

63
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What structures help veins in their function?

Thin, stiff walls, and valves. they have thin less elasticy walls because there isn’t much pressure in veins, allowing them to hold larger volumes of blood, instead. the one way valves help blood flow stay in one direction.

64
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what structures help capillaries in their function

capillary walls are a single cell thick, this allows for efficient gas and nutrient exchange.

65
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what is the blood type of the universal finer and why

O-, because it has no antibodies, so there is nothing for the other blood types to attack

66
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what blood type is the universal recipient and why

ab+, because they have no antibodies to A,B or Rh antigens

67
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What is the function of the tricuspid valve?

To prevent backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

68
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What is the main function of the esophagus in the digestive system?

It is a tube with circular and longitudinal muscles that pushes food through to the stomach.

69
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What enzyme does saliva contain that helps in the digestion of starch?

Amylase.

70
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What are the functions of the stomach?

It stores, breaks down, and digests food using acids.

71
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What is the role of the pyloric sphincter?

It regulates the passage of partially digested food from the stomach to the small intestine.

72
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What is absorbed in the large intestine?

Water and nutrients; it also forms stool for elimination from the body.

73
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what is the function of the small intestine

digesting food and absorbing nutrients

74
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What is the believed function of the appendix?

It is believed to shelter beneficial bacteria.

75
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What are the functions of the gallbladder?

It stores and concentrates bile, which breaks down fats.

76
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what is the function of the liver

breaks down red blood cells to turn into bile salts

stores glucose and turns excess glucose into fat

stores fat soluble vitamins (K,E,D,A)

detoxifies medicine like alcohol and medicine

77
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What is the function of the pancreas in digestion?

It produces digestive enzymes and regulates blood sugar levels.

78
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What are the types of digestive enzymes and fluids secreted by the pancreas?

Trypsin, lipases, bicarbonate ions, amylase, insulin and glucagen

79
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what are they types of stomach acid and fluids found in the stomach

hydrochloric acid(stomach acid), pepsinogen, mucus, lipases

80
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What happens during the P wave of an electrocardiogram?

The right and left atria contract and the membrane depolarizes.

81
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What does the QRS wave represent in an electrocardiogram?

The ventricles contract and depolarize.

82
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what happens during the t wave

ventricles relax, and membrane repolarizes

83
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What are the four nitrogen bases in DNA?

Adenine (A), Cytosine (C), Guanine (G), Thymine (T).

84
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What is a nucleotide?

A molecule that makes up DNA and RNA, it carries genetic information in cells.

85
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what is a nucleotide made of

consists of a nitrogenous base, a sugar molecule, and a phosphate group.

86
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Which nitrogen bases are complementary to each other in DNA, and how many hydrogen bonds hold them together?

A pairs with T (2 hydrogen bonds), and C pairs with G (3 hydrogen bonds).

87
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What happens during Interphase in cell division?

The cell prepares for division and duplicates its chromosomes.

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What key event occurs in Prophase I?

Homologous chromosomes pair up and become closely associated.

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What is the role of the metaphase plate in Metaphase I?

Homologous chromosomes align at the equatorial plane.

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What occurs during Metaphase II?

Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.

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What happens during Anaphase I?

Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles. sister chromatids stay together

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What is the result of Anaphase II?

Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles.

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what is the result of telophase I

2 daughter cells are formed. each cell contains only one chromosome from the homologous pair

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what is the result of telophase II

cell division is complete. 4 haploid daughter cells are formed

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What is Turner syndrome?

A genetic disorder that occurs when a female has a missing or altered X chromosome.

96
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Define non-disjunction.

A failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division, leading to an abnormal number of chromosomes. causes trisomy or monosomy

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What causes Patau syndrome?

An extra copy of chromosome 13.

98
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What is the cause of Down syndrome?

An extra copy of chromosome 21.

99
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What condition constitutes Klinefelter syndrome?

A male with an extra X chromosome.

100
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Describe Cri-du-chat syndrome.

A genetic disorder caused by a missing piece of chromosome 5.