PTCE Exam

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97 Terms

1
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All NSAIDS can be used for what?
Moderate to severe pain, Inflammation and Nerve Pain
2
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What route of administration has the quickest onset of action?
IV
3
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How many 250 mg capsules are needed to fill a prescription of: Amoxicillin 500 mg tid for 10 days ?
60
4
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Conjunctivitis can be treated by what?
Ophthalmic drops
5
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What are the symptoms of asthma?
Wheezing,Coughing,SOB
6
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How many tablets should be dispensed for the following prescription: Flagyl 250 mg 2 week supply, 1 tab qid with food for 2 weeks for both patient and partner. No alcohol.?
112
7
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What are the symptoms of GERD?
Dyspepsia,Heartburn and Regurgitation
8
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What drugs can be purchased as a exempt narcotic if all conditions outlined by the federal Controlled Substance Act are met?
Phenobarbital
9
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What must be found on all controlled substance prescription?
Physicians DEA number
10
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A patient with what blood pressure would be considered in the hyper tension category?
141/78
11
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What is not a symptom of diabetes?
Decreased hunger
12
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What is a common first choice medication for type 1 diabetes?
Insulin
13
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Osteoporosis is what happens when what?
Your bone breaks down more than it builds up
14
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Which pharmacy legislation requires that tamper-proof pads be used for medicaid patients?
Medicaid Tamper-Resistant Prescriptions Act
15
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What classification of medication does acyclovir belong in?
Antiviral
16
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How many grams of solute are in 1 L of 5% (w/v) solution?
5g
17
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How many grams are in 600 ml of a 1:200 (w/v) solution of a drug?
3g
18
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What is the percentage strength of an ointment if one mixes 10 g of hydrocortisone into aquaphor to make 400 g?
0.025%
19
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Which prescription medication might be given at the same time as an antibiotic to prevent yeast infections?
Diflucan
20
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How many grams of hydrocortisone powder should be used to prepare 1lb of a 0.25% hydrocortisone cream?
113.4g
21
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In what schedule does Meperdine belong in?
2
22
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How many mg of atropine sulfate are needed to make 30 ml of a 1:200 solution?
150mg
23
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Which of the following is a topical antibiotic?
Bactroban
24
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H2Blockers should be ideally taken before or after eating?
Before
25
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A physician orders KCI 40 mEq to be added to D5W 1000ml and administered over 4 hours. The injection solution on hand is KCI 2 mEq/ml. How many ml of KCI should be added?
20 ml
26
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If an injectable drug is labeled 0.5mcg/2ml and the patient is to receive 0.125 mcg. How many ml should the patient receive?
0.5ml
27
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What OTC medications must be recorded in a book before before it is sold to the customer?
Pseudoephedrine
28
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What would a message of "NDC not covered" indicate to the pharmacy technician?
The patients insurance does not cover the drug
29
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What type of information should be collected from the patient or representative before a prescription is processed?
Disease state, drug allergies, medications taken by the patient
30
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If a patient is experiencing N/V which dosage form would be more effective?
Suppository
31
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What is an advantage of a parenternal drug?
Rapid onset of action
32
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What term describes the range between the minimum effective concentration and the minimum toxic concentration in a blood concentration curve?
Therapeutic window
33
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What is the net profit for a prescription that has an acquisition cost $45 and dispensing cost of $3.75 and retails at $55?
$6.25
34
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You receive a prescription for Robitussin AC: t 1 tsp qid for 10 days. How much would you dispense?
200 ml
35
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How many tsp are in a pint of elixir?
96
36
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What does FDA refer to?
Food and Drug administration
37
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How many days will this prescription last: Ampicillin 250 mg #40 T I C PO qid, ref#1.
10
38
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How many times a day would a patient take a medication if it was written "q4h"
4
39
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If you receive a prescription for use OD where would you apply the drug?
Right eye
40
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How much 1% boric acid solution and 5% boric acid solution are needed to make 30 ml of 3% boric acid solution
5%:15 ml; 1%:15 ml
41
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What is a task that a pharmacy technician does not complete?
Counselling
42
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What is the most common route of administration?
Oral
43
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How much time does a pharmacist have to complete the partial filling of a schedule 2 prescription?
72 hrs
44
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How many ml of water should be mixed with 1200 ml of 65% (w/v) to make a 45% solution?
830 ml
45
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What is the maximum number of refills are allowed for a schedule 2 drugs?
None
46
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How many days will a prescription of 60 tablets last if the directions are " i-ii tabs PO q 4-6 h"?
5 days
47
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What does "ii gtt os bid" mean?
Instill two drops in left eye twice a day
48
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What DAW code is used when a physician writes "Brand Name Only" on the prescription?
1
49
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How long must a laminar airflow hood be on for before being used?
30 Min
50
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A patient presents a prescription to the pharmacy for Celor 125mg/5ml with the directions of 1 tsp PO tid x 10 days. How much should be dispensed?
150ml
51
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Convert 10* C to F*
50*F
52
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What is the basic unit of measurement of weight of weight in the metric system?
Kg
53
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The larger the needle gauge the ______ the diameter of the needle?
Smaller
54
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What is the route of administration for a prescription with the directions "i supp pr q6h prn"?
Rectally
55
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How many refills can a physician order for a schedule IV drug?
5
56
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What is the purpose of a loading does of medication?
To obtain therapeutic level of the medication into the blood stream as soon as possible
57
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What is a drug that can cause fatality is expired?
Tetracycline
58
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Convert 85*F to C*
30.6*C
59
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What size container should be used in dispensing 240ml of liquid medication
8oz
60
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How many grams of fluorouracil will a 154lb patient receive in 5 successful days at a dosage rate of 12mg/kg/day?
0.84g
61
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How often is a biennial inventory taken in a pharmacy?
Every 2 years
62
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What would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription?
Dosage schedule
63
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What is true of concerning nitrofurantoin?
It should be taken with food
64
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What drug will produce an adverse affect if alcohol is consumed during the course of therapy?
Metronidazole
65
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What medication should be used as a prophylactic for migraines?
Inderal
66
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At what standard time would a patient take a medication if it was 0800 hrs military time?
8am
67
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What is the generic name for Fosamax
Alendronate
68
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What drug is the generic name for Micronase?
Glyburide
69
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Xanax is to anxiety as lunesta is to what?
Sleep
70
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What organ would be affected if a patient was experiencing rhinitis?
Eye
71
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What is Glaucoma?
Increased pressure in the eye
72
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What is the generic name for Zesteril?
Lisinopril
73
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How often should a fentanyl path be changed?
Every 3 days
74
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What is the generic name for a beta-blocker Tenormin?
Atenolol
75
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Which DAW code should be used if the physician authorizes the use of a generic drug but the patient wants the brand name drug?
2
76
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What drug is not a schedule 2 drug?
Lorazapam
77
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Chephalexin is to cephalasporin as ciphrofloxacin is to what?
Penicillin
78
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What is the generic name for Dilantin
Phenytoin
79
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What drug is not used for asthma?
INH
80
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What type of drug requires a DEA number?
Controlled substance
81
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Levothyroxine is to hypothyroidism as glyburide is to what?
Oral hyperglycemic agent
82
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What is the generic name for Percocet?
Acetaminophen+ Oxycodone
83
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What is the generic name for Capoten?
Captopril
84
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What factor(s) influence the effect of a drug on an individual?
Age,Disease,Gender
85
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Which body system would be affected by an anaphylactic reaction?
Respiratory
86
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To what organization would someone report a medication order?
FDA
87
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What is the brand name of Lorazapam?
Ativan
88
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Depakote is to anticonvulsant as Celebrex is to what?
NSAID
89
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What part of medicare reimburses a retail pharmacy for prescription medications?
Part D
90
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A patient has been ordered PB 1/4 gr; how many 15mg tablets should the patient receive?
1
91
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Who licences pharmacists in each state?
State board of pharmacy
92
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What is the infusion rate in ml per hr if a total of 500ml is infused over 4 hrs?
125ml/hr
93
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What would be appropriate directions for Ambien?
i tab PO q hs
94
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What is a indication of Zofran?
N/V
95
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What is the generic name for Omnicef?
Cefdinir
96
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What drugs end in "pril"?
ACE inhibitors
97
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What volume does a small parenternal unit contain?
100ml