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Where do thiazide diuretics act?
distal convoluted tubule
MOA: Thiazide diuretics
Inhibit Na+/Cl- cotransport
What is the difference in mechanism of Ca2+ reabsorption in DCT vs. TAL?
(1) DCT: Active transport
(2) TAL: Driven by (+) lumenal voltage
What effect do thiazide diuretics have on Ca2+ reabsorption?
Enhances reabsorption
(opposite in loop diuretics)
5 indications for thiazide treatment
1. Hypertension
2. Heart failure
3. Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
4. Ca2+ stone prevention
5. Osteoporosis
7 adverse effects of thiazides
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Hyperlipidemia
4. Hyperglycemia
5. Hypokelimia
6. Hyperuricemia
7. increase Li+
Which segment of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Thick Ascending Loop of Henle
Note: DCT is relatively impermeable to water as well
What transporter do loop diuretics inhibit?
Na-K-2Cl (on lumenal membrane)
MOA: Furosemide
Inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- Cotransporter
What ions do loop diuretics promote excretion of indirectly?
(1) Mg2+
(2) Ca2+
Do loop diuretics have a larger effect on serum Mg2+ or Ca2+?
Mg2+
Ca2+ levels are corrected by ↑ intestinal absorption due to Vitamin D, ↑ renal absorption due to PTH
Which class of diuretics induce the expression of COX-2?
Loop diuretics
Which class of pain medication can interfere with loop diuretics?
NSAIDs
Indications (3) : Loop diuretics
1. Pulmonary edema/CHF (1st line drug for CHF with edema)
2. Ascites
3. Hypertension
True or false. Loop diuretics are potassium wasting.
True
Inhibition of Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter ⇒ ↑ lumenal Na+ concentration and ∴ increased activity of Na+/K+ ATPase
Adverse Effects (5) : Loop diuretics
1. Ototoxicity
2. Sulfa drug allergy
3. Interstitial nephritis
4. Hyperuricemia
5. Contraction alkalosis
Name a loop diuretic that is NOT a Sulfa drug
Ethacrynic acid
Suffix: ARBs
-sartan
MOA: Aliskiren
direct renin inhibitor
What effect does Angiotensin II have on renal electrolyte handling?
↑ Na+/HCO3- in PCT
Suffix: ACE inhibitors
-pril
Name 4 physiologic effects of ACE inhibitors/ARBs
(1) Dilate efferent arteriole
(2) ⇒ ↓ GFR
(3) ↓ Aldosterone release
(4)⇒ ↓ Na+/HCO3- reabsorption in PCT
Name 2 solute abnormalities caused by ACE inhibitors
(1) ↑ Creatinine
(2) Hyperkalemia
What is a common initial side effect for heart failure patients started on ACE inhibitors?
Fainting
(Sudden drop in AngII ⇒ Vasodilation ⇒ Syncope)
Indications (4) : ACE inhibitors
(1) Heart failure
(2) Myocardial infarction
(3) Hypertension
(4) Diabetic nephropathy
Do ACE inhibitors ↓ mortality in heart failure?
yes
(By inhibiting AngII mediated remodeling)
When are diabetic patients placed on ACE inhibitors?
Albuminaria with BP >130/80
What is the most distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors?
Dry cough
(Due to increased bradykinin)
What genetic disease is an absolute contraindication to ACE inhibitors?
Hereditary angioedema
Which antihypertensive is a teratogen?
ACE inhibitors
What drugs are an absolute contraindication to ACE inhibitors?
NSAIDs
What is the difference in target of dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?
(1) Dihydropyridine: ∝ Smooth muscle
(2) Non-dihydropyridine: ∝ Cardiac muscle
Suffix: Dihydropyridines
-dipine
Name the CCB with the strongest cardiac effect
Verapamil
(∴ Verapamil > Diltiazem for angina)
Name the CCB which causes both vasodilation and an intermediate cardiac effect
Diltiazem
(Diltiazem = 2 = Affects both smooth muscle and heart)
What calcium channel blocker can be used in pregnancy?
Nifedipine
Indications (9) : Calcium channel blockers
(1) Hypertension
(2) Malignant hypertension
(3) Hypertension in pregnancy
(4) Raynaud's
(5) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
(6) Stable angina
(7) Migraine prophylaxis
(8) Prinzmetal angina (1st line)
(9) Arrhythmia
Walk around the room counterclockwise ~sketchy tip
Which CCB is used for migraine prophylaxis?
Verapamil
(Verapamil for Very-Painful-Migraines)
Adverse Effects (3) : Dihydropyridines
(1) Lightheadedness and headache
(2) Peripheral edema
(3) Reflex tachycardia
Which calcium channel blocker is known to exacerbate myocardial ischemia?
Nifedipine
Name the distinctive side effect of Verapamil
Constipation
What enzyme do nitrates activate?
Guanylyl cyclase ⇒ ↑ cGMP
Describe the effect nitrates have on the vasculature
(1) Significant venous dilation
(2) Moderate dilation of large arteries
Which hemodynamic factor [afterload, preload] do nitrates predominantly affect?
Preload (decrease)
Indications (3) : Nitrates
(1) Stable angina
(2) Prinzmetal angina
(3) Acute coronary syndrome
ROA: Nitroglycerin
(route of action)
Sublingual
ROA: Isosorbide Nitrate
Oral
When are nitrates contraindicated in treatment of MI?
Right sided MI
(Due to ↑ sensitivity to preload)
Why would β-blockers be given with nitrates?
Prevent reflex tachycardia
(Venous vasodilation ⇒ ↓ Preload ⇒ ↓ MAP ∴ Body compensates by ↑ HR)
How can nitrates cause hypoxia?
Oxidize heme Fe2+ → Fe3+
Causes methemoglobinemia
(Nitrates have many oxygens ∴ oxidizing agents ∴ oxidize iron)
How is nitrate tolerance avoided?
Nitrate free interval every day or
low dose interval
What drug class is an absolute contraindication to nitrates?
PDE-5 inhibitors i.e. Sildenafil
(Viagra)
What type of heart disease are nitrates contraindicated in?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
(↓ Chamber vol. exacerbates outflow obstruction and mitral regurgitation)
Indications (3) : Clonidine
(1) Hypertension
(2) ADHD
(3) Tourette's syndrome
Treatment: Gestational hypertension
α-methyldopa also
Nifedipine
Adverse Effect: α-methyldopa
Drug induced lupus
(Also Coombs-positive hemolytic anemia)
What sympatholytic is used to treat PTSD?
Prazosin
MOA: Clonidine
α2 agonist
Adverse Effects (2) : α1 antagonists
(1) Orthostatic hypotension
(2) ⇒ Reflex tachycardia
Suffix: α1 antagonist
"-osin"
What type of sympatholytic are useful in chronic stable angina?
β blockers
What are the primary indications for the cardio-selective β-blockers?
(1) MI
(2) CHF
Name 2 non-selective β + α1 blockers
(1) Carvedilol
(2) Labetalol
Which β-blocker is the most acceptable to use while pregnant to treat HTN?
Lavetalol
Which class of sympatholytic is useful in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
β-blockers
(↓ Ventricle volume ∝ ↑ Outflow resistance ∴ β-blockers mediated ↓ in stroke volume helps with symptoms)
What drug is a selective β1-blocker with partial agonist activity?
Acebutolol
What drug is a non-selective β-blocker with partial agonist activity?
Pindolol
Which β-blockers are contraindicated in heart failure?
Partial agonists
Partial agonist activity (pindolol, acebutolol) should be avoided with patients with heart failure + history of MI
Treatment: β-blocker poisoning
Glucagon
What new EKG finding may present when on β-blockers?
Heart block (due to excessive suppression of AV node conduction)
How can you identify a β1 selective antagonist?
Name start with A-BEAM
1. Atenolol
2. Betexalol
3. Esmolol
4. Acebutolol
5. Metropolol
Name 2 reasons β-blockers are helpful in CHF
1) Prevents remodeling (due to excess catecholamines)
(2) ↓ Renin (and ∴ prevents fluid overload and AngII mediated remodeling)
Adverse Effects (3) : β-blockers
(1) ⇒ Heart block
(2) Exacerbate asthma
(3) Impotence
How is dietary cholesterol sent to the liver?
(1) Converted to cholesterol esters
(2) Packaged in chylomicrons
Which apoliproteins do chylomicrons have?
A-E
(A, B, C, E)
What enzyme releases FFAs from chylomicrons and VLDLs?
LPL
(Lipoprotein Lipase)
What is the receptor and ligand for receptor mediated endocytosis of chylomicrons?
Receptor: LDL receptor
Ligand: ApoE
What is the product of HMG-CoA reductase?
Mevalonate
First-intermediate in de novo cholesterol synthesis
What apolipoprotein is found on "bad cholesterol"?
ApoB100
What is the receptor and ligand for receptor mediated endocytosis of LDL?
Receptor: LDL receptor
Ligand: ApoB100
(Also scavenger receptor)
What enzyme converts free cholesterol to cholesterol esters for transport by HDL?
LCAT
(Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase)
What are two mechanisms HDLs transfer cholesterol to the liver?
(1) Deliver to LDLs via CETP
(2) Receptor mediated endocytosis via SR-1
CETP= cholesteryl ester transfer protein
MOA: Statins
Inhibits HMG-CoA reductase
(↓ Intracellular Cholesterol ⇒ Upregulation of LDL receptors ⇒ ↑ Rate of peripheral cholesterol removal)
What part of the lipid fraction do statins reduce?
(1) ↓↓↓ LDL
(2) ↓ TGs
(3) ↑ HDL
What is the first line treatment for hypercholesterolemia?
Lifestyle modification + statins
What is the most effective lipid-lowering drug to prevent future cardiovascular events?
Statins
Only lipid lowering drug consistently proven to reduce risk of atherosclerotic heart disease
Adverse Effects (3) : Statins
(1) Myopathy
(2) ↑ LFTs
(3) Teratogen
LFTs= liver function test
What is the only statin drug not metabolized by the CYP-450 system?
Pravastatin
(Primadonna-statin = Too good for CYP-450 system)
What enzyme catalyzes the final step of coagulation cascade?
Thrombin
(Factor II, and crosslinking of fibrin occurs via Factor XIII)
What coagulation factor activates thrombin?
Factor 10a + 5a
Route of Entry: Direct factor Xa inhibitors
Oral
What protein mediates Heparin's effects?
Antithrombin III
Which coagulation factors does Heparin inhibit?
(1) Factor IIa (Thrombin)
(2) Factor Xa
Which clotting time does heparin most affect?
PTT
Activated partial thromboplastin time
Indications (3) : Heparin
(1) DVT prophylaxis
(2) Pulmonary embolism prophylaxis
(3) Acute MI
Route of Entry: Heparin
IV
What is the antigenic target in Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia?
Platelet Factor 4
Antibodies against heparin are bound to plately factor 4 cause heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Adverse Effects (4) : Heparin
(1) Heparin induced thromboytopenia
(2) Hypoaldosteronism (leads to hyperkalemia)
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Type IV RTA
(Type 4 renal tubular acidosis)
What drug reverses the effects of Heparin?
Protamine sulfate
What is the difference LMWH and Heparin?
LMWH is more specific for Factor Xa