MAN4720 Exam 3

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Last updated 4:21 AM on 7/25/26
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80 Terms

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1. How is a firm's home market defined when discussing international strategy?

The country where the firm originates and where its headquarters and primary operations are located.

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2. Which international strategy focuses on expanding production and sales into numerous geographic markets across regional boundaries?

Global strategy.

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3. What minimum percentage of ownership in a foreign affiliate is required for a parent company to be considered a multinational corporation (MNC)?

At least 10% ownership.

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4. Why would a company choose to pursue a regionalization strategy instead of competing on a broad global scale?

To focus on cultural, economic, and geographic similarities that improve efficiency and competitiveness.

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5. According to Raymond Vernon’s product life‑cycle theory, where are innovations most often introduced first?

In the firm’s home country.

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6. In what way can participation in global value chains encourage a company to vertically integrate its operations?

By revealing opportunities to control more stages of production for efficiency and cost advantages.

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7. Which modern trade agreement strengthens intellectual property protections while reducing restrictions on cross‑border data flows and storage?

USMCA.

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8. Which of the following represents an advanced factor of production that may attract firms to a foreign country?

Highly skilled labor.

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9. What term describes the situation in which a multinational corporation adopts a superior practice developed by one of its foreign subsidiaries?

Reverse innovation.

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10. What does the term liability of foreignness refer to?

The additional costs and disadvantages firms face when operating outside their home country.

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11. Which trend has emerged because of increasing ideological divisions and opposition to globalization in many developed nations?

Deglobalization.

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12. According to the text, how did Russia respond when many Western businesses exited the country following the invasion of Ukraine?

It transferred ownership of departing firms’ assets to domestic operators.

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13. Eskom, the state‑owned electric utility in South Africa, illustrates which type of economic risk faced by firms?

Infrastructure risk.

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14. Why can a strengthening U.S. dollar create challenges for American multinational corporations?

It makes U.S. exports more expensive and reduces foreign earnings when converted back to dollars.

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15. What management challenge commonly arises from differences in workplace flexibility across countries?

Coordinating HR policies across diverse cultural expectations.

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16. In Porter’s Diamond Model, what is meant by related and supporting industries?

Local industries that complement or support the firm’s operations and enhance competitiveness.

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17. Which international corporate‑level strategy gives individual country business units authority over both strategic and operating decisions?

Multidomestic strategy.

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18. What underlying belief guides firms that pursue a global strategy?

That standardized products and centralized decisions create efficiency and competitive advantage.

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19. IKEA’s worldwide use of standardized furniture designs and packaging is an example of which international strategy?

Global strategy.

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20. Which foreign market entry method allows another company to manufacture and market a firm’s products in exchange for royalty payments?

Licensing.

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21. What is one significant drawback of entering an international market through a strategic alliance?

Risk of opportunistic behavior or partner misrepresentation.

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22. Which international entry strategy provides the highest level of ownership and control but also requires the greatest investment of time and resources?

Wholly owned subsidiary.

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23. Why might a company prefer acquiring an existing foreign business rather than establishing a new operation from scratch?

Faster market entry and access to established resources and customers.

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24. Research examining international diversification generally finds what pattern between geographic expansion and firm performance?

An inverted U‑shaped relationship.

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25. In what way can expanding internationally enhance a firm’s ability to innovate?

By exposing the firm to diverse knowledge, markets, and technologies.

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26. What characteristic most clearly defines a cooperative strategy between businesses?

Sharing resources to pursue mutual goals.

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27. Which form of strategic alliance creates a separate legal entity owned jointly by the participating firms?

Joint venture.

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28. Firms operating in which type of market are most likely to use strategic alliances to gain access to protected markets or establish franchises abroad?

Slow‑cycle markets.

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29. In fast‑cycle markets, companies most commonly form strategic alliances for what purpose?

Speeding up new product development.

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30. Which business‑level cooperative strategy involves firms at the same stage of the value chain sharing resources to gain a competitive advantage?

Horizontal complementary alliance.

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31. In competition‑reducing strategies, what is meant by mutual forbearance?

Firms avoid aggressive competition because they compete in multiple markets.

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32. Which corporate‑level cooperative strategy most closely resembles a horizontal complementary alliance because both seek economies of scope?

Diversifying alliances.

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33. Why might a company select a nonequity strategic alliance instead of a joint venture for outsourcing activities?

Lower commitment and fewer resource requirements.

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34. What is a major concern when alliance partners misrepresent their capabilities or expertise?

Adverse selection.

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35. How does an opportunity‑maximization approach to managing alliances differ from a cost‑minimization approach?

It focuses on learning, flexibility, and value creation rather than strict controls.

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36. Stable alliance networks are most commonly found in industries with which characteristics?

Mature, stable markets.

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37. What is the primary distinction between explicit collusion and tacit collusion?

Explicit collusion involves direct communication; tacit collusion does not.

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38. What best defines a cross‑border strategic alliance?

A partnership between firms headquartered in different countries.

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39. Why is trust viewed as a source of competitive advantage in cooperative relationships?

It reduces monitoring costs and improves collaboration.

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40. What was the primary motivation behind the partnership among Google, Intel, and TAG Heuer to develop a smartwatch?

Combining complementary resources and expertise.

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41. In a vertical complementary strategic alliance, firms contribute resources from which part of the value chain?

Different stages of the value chain.

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42. What risk does a firm face after making alliance‑specific investments in a partnership?

The holdup problem.

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43. Why are horizontal complementary alliances generally more difficult to sustain than vertical complementary alliances?

Partners are direct competitors.

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44. What is the principal purpose of forming a dynamic alliance network?

Rapid adaptation to changing environments.

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45. Within a franchising arrangement, what is the franchisor primarily responsible for providing?

Brand, training, and operating systems.

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46. What is the central objective of corporate governance in modern corporations?

Aligning managerial actions with shareholder interests.

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47. What does the term managerial revolution describe in the context of large corporations?

The separation of ownership and control.

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48. How do shareholders typically reduce the risk associated with their investments?

Diversification.

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49. Which concept refers to managers pursuing their own interests through deceptive or self‑serving behavior?

Managerial opportunism.

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50. Why do top executives often favor greater product diversification than shareholders do?

It reduces managerial employment risk.

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51. Which of the following represents an agency cost?

Expenses incurred to monitor and control managers.

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52. How is ownership concentration generally measured within a corporation?

Percentage of shares held by large block shareholders.

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53. What governance role do institutional investors, such as pension funds, typically perform?

Active monitoring of management.

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54. What occurs when CEO duality exists within a company?

The CEO also serves as board chair.

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55. Who are considered related outsiders on a board of directors?

Independent directors with some relationship to the firm.

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56. What makes executive compensation a difficult governance mechanism to design effectively?

Balancing incentives with long‑term shareholder value.

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57. Which external governance mechanism is most likely to become important when internal governance systems are ineffective?

The market for corporate control.

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58. What is the purpose of adopting a poison pill defense?

To deter hostile takeovers.

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59. What issue is primarily addressed by Section 404 of the Sarbanes‑Oxley Act?

Internal control systems and reporting accuracy.

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60. If a company is meeting its debt obligations, how can lenders such as banks still influence corporate governance?

By imposing covenants and monitoring activities.

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61. What factor has the greatest influence on corporate governance practices in China?

Government involvement.

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62. Which statement accurately describes benefit corporations?

They pursue profit while legally committing to social and environmental goals.

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63. What has research generally concluded about diversity on corporate boards?

It improves decision quality and firm performance.

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64. Which aspect of organizational structure establishes reporting relationships and defines decision‑making authority?

Organizational hierarchy.

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65. In the organizational control process, what step comes immediately after setting objectives based on desired outcomes?

Measuring actual performance.

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66. Which form of organizational control uses qualitative, judgment‑based measures to determine whether strategies fit the external environment?

Strategic controls.

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67. According to the text, how are organizational structure and strategy related?

Structure follows strategy.

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68. A company with one primary product, serving a local market under the direction of an owner‑manager, is most likely organized using which structural form?

Simple structure.

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69. Which feature is commonly associated with a functional organizational structure designed to support a cost leadership strategy?

Centralized decision‑making.

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70. Why is decision‑making authority often decentralized in a functional structure supporting a differentiation strategy?

To encourage creativity and responsiveness.

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71. Which multidivisional organizational form best supports a related constrained diversification strategy by encouraging cooperation among divisions?

Cooperative M‑form.

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72. What is one important disadvantage of using the Strategic Business Unit (SBU) multidivisional structure?

Complexity and high administrative costs.

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73. The competitive multidivisional structure is best suited for implementing which corporate‑level strategy?

Unrelated diversification.

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74. Which international organizational structure gives individual country units responsibility for making both strategic and operating decisions to meet local market needs?

Worldwide geographic area structure.

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75. When pursuing a global strategy, what is the primary purpose of a worldwide product divisional structure?

Standardizing products and centralizing decisions.

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76. What type of organizational structure is most commonly used to implement a transnational strategy?

Matrix structure.

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77. Within a strategic network, what responsibility does the strategic center firm have regarding technology?

Facilitating knowledge sharing and innovation.

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78. Which statement most accurately describes the organizational structure of a digital platform?

A hub connecting multiple independent participants.

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79. How does structural flexibility differ from structural stability?

Flexibility enables change; stability maintains consistency.

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80. Which type of strategic network is specifically designed to coordinate international cooperative strategies across multiple regional markets?

Distributed strategic network.