HARR CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

Which statement regarding renal function is true?

A. Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and

salt than other capillaries

B. The collecting tubule reabsorbs sodium and

secretes potassium in response to antidiuretic

hormone (ADH)

C. The collecting tubule is permeable to H2O only

in the presence of aldosterone

D. The thick ascending limb is highly permeable to

H2O and urea

Correct answer: A

Which statement regarding normal salt and H2O handling by the nephron is correct?

A. The ascending limb of the tubule is highly

permeable to salt but not H2O

B. The stimulus for ADH release is low arterial

pressure in the afferent arteriole

C. The descending limb of the tubule is impermeable

to urea but highly permeable to salt

D. Renin is released in response to high plasma

osmolality

Correct Answer: A

Which statement concerning renal tubular function is true?

A. In salt deprivation, the kidneys will conserve

sodium at the expense of potassium

B. Potassium is not excreted when serum concentration is below 3.5 mmol/L

C. No substance can be excreted into urine at a rate that exceeds the glomerular filtration rate

D. When tubular function is lost, the specific gravity of urine will be below 1.005

Correct Answer: A

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine bacteriologic culture?

A. The container must be sterile

B. The midstream void technique must be used

C. The collected sample must be plated within

2 hours unless refrigerated

D. The sample may be held at 2°C-8°C for up

to 48 hours prior to plating

Correct Answer: D

Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

A. Preservative tablets should be used for collecting

random urine specimens

B. Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed

in deionized H2O

C. Samples may be stored at room temperature for

up to 2 hours

D. First morning voided samples are not acceptable

when renal disease is suspected

Correct Answer: C

Which urine color is correlated correctly with the pigment-producing substance?

A. Smoky red urine with homogentisic acid

B. Dark amber urine with myoglobin

C. Deep yellow urine and yellow foam with bilirubin

D. Red-brown urine with biliverdin

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following substances will cause urine to produce red fluorescence when examined with an ultraviolet lamp (360 nm)?

A. Myoglobin

B. Porphobilinogen (PBG) C. Urobilin

D. Coproporphyrin

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood's) lamp?

A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Lead poisoning

C. Erythropoietic porphyria

D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

Correct Answer: B

Which statement regarding porphyria is accurate?

A. Porphyria is exclusively inherited

B. All types cause an increase in urinary porphyrins

C. All types are associated with anemia

D. Serum, urine, and fecal tests may be needed for diagnosis

Correct Answer: D

Which is the most common form of porphyria? A. Erythropoietic porphyria

B. Acute intermittent porphyria

C. Variegate porphyria

D. Porphyria cutanea tardaWhich is the most common form of porphyria? A. Erythropoietic porphyria

B. Acute intermittent porphyria

C. Variegate porphyria

D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following methods is the least sensitive and specific for measuring PBG in urine? A. Watson-Schwartz test

B. LC-MS

C. Ion exchange chromatography-Ehrlich's reaction D. Isotope dilution-MS

Correct Answer: A

A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:

A. Gantrisin (Pyridium) B. Phenolsulfonphthalein

C. Rifampin

D. Melanin

Correct Answer: D

Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:

A. Lead poisoning

B. Porphyria cutanea tarda C. Alkaptonuria

D. Hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?

A. Glucose

B. Protein

C. pH

D. Bilirubin

Correct Answer: B

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?

A. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL

of 6 N HCl

B. 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with

boric acid

C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration

D. Random urine preserved with formalin

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting a 24-hour urine sample for catecholamines?

A. Urine in the bladder is voided and discarded at

the start of the test

B. At 24 hours, any urine in the bladder is voided

and added to the collection

C. All urine should be collected in a single container

that is kept refrigerated

D. Ten mL of 1N sodium hydroxide should be

added to the container before collection

Correct Answer: D

Urine production of less than 400 mL/day is:

A. Consistent with normal renal function and

H2O balance

B. Termed isosthenuria

C. Defined as oliguria

D. Associated with diabetes mellitus

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?

A. Protein

B. Salt

C. Urea

D. Glucose

Correct Answer: A

Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

B. Renal tubular failure

C. Diabetes insipidus

D. Addison's disease

Correct Answer: C

In which of the following conditions is the urine SG likely to be below 1.025?

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Drug overdose

C. Chronic renal failure

D. Prerenal failure

Correct Answer: C

Which statement regarding methods for measuring SG is true?

A. To correct a urinometer, subtract 0.001 per each

3°C below 15.5°C

B. Colorimetric SG tests are falsely elevated when a

large quantity of glucose is present

C. Colorimetric SG readings are falsely elevated

when pH is alkaline

D. Refractometry should be performed before the

urine is centrifuged

Correct Answer: A

What is the principle of the colorimetric reagent strip determination of SG in urine?

A. Ionic strength alters the pKa of a polyelectrolyte

B. Sodium and other cations are chelated by a

ligand that changes color

C. Anions displace a pH indicator from a mordant,

making it water soluble

D. Ionized solutes catalyze oxidation of an azo dye

Correct Answer: A

Which statement regarding urine pH is true?

A. High-protein diets promote an alkaline urine pH

B. pH tends to decrease as urine is stored

C. Contamination should be suspected if urine pH

is less than 4.5

D. Bacteriuria is most often associated with a low

urine pH

Correct Answer: C

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is: A. Consistently acid

B. Consistently alkaline

C. Neutral

D. Variable, depending upon diet

Correct Answer: B

The normal daily urine output for an adult is approximately:

A. 0.2-0.5 L

B. 0.6-1.6 L

C. 2.7-3.0 L

D. 3.2-3.5 L

Correct Answer: B

The SG of the filtrate in Bowman's space is approximately:

A. 1.000-1.002

B. 1.004-1.006

C. 1.008-1.010

D. 1.012-1.014

Correct Answer: C

A patient with partially compensated respiratory alkalosis would have a urine pH of:

A. 4.5-5.5

B. 5.5-6.5

C. 6.5-7.5 D. 7.5-8.5

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following is most likely to cause a false-positive dry reagent strip test for urinary protein?

A. Urine of high SG

B. Highly buffered alkaline urine C. Bence-Jones protein

D. Salicylates

Correct Answer: B

When testing for urinary protein with sulfosalicylic acid (SSA), which condition may produce a false-positive result?

A. Highly buffered alkaline urine

B. The presence of x-ray contrast media C. Increased urinary SG

D. The presence of red blood cells (RBCs)

Correct Answer: B

A discrepancy between the urine SG determined by measuring refractive index and urine osmolality would be most likely to occur:

A. After catheterization of the urinary tract

B. In diabetes mellitus

C. After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

D. In uremia

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following is likely to result in a false-negative dry reagent strip test for proteinuria?

A. Penicillin

B. Aspirin

C. Amorphous phosphates

D. Bence-Jones protein

Correct Answer: D

Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed:

A. 30 mg

B. 50 mg

C. 100 mg

D. 150 mg

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following is least likely to cause a false-positive result with turbidimetric protein tests?

A. Tolbutamide

B. X-ray contrast media

C. Penicillin or sulfa antibiotics

D. Ascorbic acid

Correct Answer: D

Which statement best describes the clinical utility of tests for microalbuminuria?

A. Testing may detect early renal involvement in

diabetes mellitus

B. Microalbuminuria refers to a specific subfraction

of albumin found only in persons with diabetic

nephropathy

C. A positive test result indicates the presence of

orthostatic albuminuria

D. Testing should be part of the routine urinalysis

Correct Answer: A

Dry reagent strip tests for microalbuminuria that compare albumin to creatinine determine the creatinine concentration based upon which principle?

A. Formation of a Cu+2-creatinine complex

B. Enzymatic assay using sarcosine oxidase and

peroxidase

C. Reaction of creatinine with alkaline sodium

picrate

D. Change in pH as creatinine is converted to

creatine

Correct Answer: A

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be detected by dry reagent strip tests for proteinuria?

A. Orthostatic albuminuria

B. Chronic renal failure

C. Pyelonephritis

D. Renal tubular proteinuria

Correct Answer: D

The normal renal threshold for glucose is:

A. 70-85 mg/dL

B. 100-115 mg/dL

C. 130-145 mg/dL

D. 165-180 mg/dL

Correct Answer: D

In which of the following conditions is glycosuria most likely?

A. Addison's disease

B. Hypothyroidism

C. Pregnancy

D. Hypopituitarism

Correct Answer: C

In addition to ascorbate, the glucose oxidase reaction may be inhibited by which substance?

A. Acetoacetic acid (AAA)

B. ε-Aminocaproic acid

C. Creatinine

D. Azopyridium

Correct Answer: A

A positive glucose oxidase test and a negative test for reducing sugars indicates:

A. True glycosuria

B. False-positive reagent strip test

C. False-negative reducing test caused by ascorbate

D. Galactosuria

Correct Answer: A

A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates:

A. True glycosuria

B. A false-negative glucose oxidase reaction

C. The presence of a nonglucose reducing sugar such as galactose

D. A trace quantity of glucose

Correct Answer: C

In what condition may urinary ketone tests underestimate ketosis?

A. Acidosis

B. Hemolytic anemia

C. Renal failure

D. Excessive use of vitamin C

Correct Answer: A

AAA is detected in urine by reaction with:

A. Sodium nitroprusside

B. o-Toluidine

C. m-Dinitrobenzene

D. m-Dinitrophenylhydrazine

Correct Answer: A

Nondiabetic ketonuria can occur in all of the following except:

A. Pregnancy

B. Renal failure

C. Starvation

D. Lactate acidosis

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following statements regarding the classical nitroprusside reaction for ketones is true?

A. The reaction is most sensitive to acetone

B. Nitroprusside reacts with acetone, AAA, and

β-hydroxybutyric acid

C. It may be falsely positive in phenylketonuria

D. The reaction is recommended for diagnosing ketoacidosis

Correct Answer: C

Hemoglobin in urine can be differentiated from myoglobin using:

A. 80% ammonium sulfate to precipitate

hemoglobin

B. Sodium dithionite to reduce hemoglobin

C. o-Dianisidine instead of benzidine as the color

indicator

D. The dry reagent strip blood test

Body fluids/Select methods/Hemoglobinuria/2

Correct Answer: A

Which of the following conditions is associated with a negative blood test and an increase in urine urobilinogen?

A. Calculi of the kidney or bladder

B. Malignancy of the kidney or urinary system

C. Crush injury

D. Extravascular hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer: D

Which statement about the dry reagent strip blood test is true?

A. The test is based on the reaction of hemoglobin with peroxidase

B. Abnormal color may be absent from the urine when the reaction is positive

C. A nonhemolyzed trace is present when there are 1-2 RBCs per high-power field

D. Salicylates cause a false-positive reaction

Correct Answer: B

A moderate-positive blood test and trace protein test are seen on the dry reagent strip, and

11-20 red blood cells per high-power field are seen in the microscopic exam. These results are most likely caused by which of the following?

A. Transfusion reaction

B. Myoglobinuria

C. Intravascular hemolytic anemia

D. Recent urinary tract catheterization

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following results are discrepant?

A. Small amount of blood but negative protein

B. Moderate amount of blood but no RBCs in

microscopic exam

C. Negative blood but 6-10 RBCs/high-power

field (HPF)

D. Negative blood, positive protein

Correct Answer: Ca

Which of the following statements regarding the dry reagent strip test for bilirubin is true?

A. A positive test is seen in prehepatic, hepatic,

and posthepatic jaundice

B. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin

C. Standing urine may become falsely positive due

to bacterial contamination

D. High levels of ascorbate will cause positive

interference

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

A. p-Dinitrobenzene

B. p-Aminosalicylate

C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

D. p-Dichloroaniline

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following statements regarding urinary urobilinogen is true?

A. Diurnal variation occurs with highest levels seen

in the early morning

B. High levels occurring with a positive bilirubin

test indicate obstructive jaundice

C. Dry reagent strip tests do not detect decreased

levels

D. False-positive results may occur if urine is stored

for more than 2 hours

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following statements regarding the test for nitrite in urine is true?

A. It detects more than 95% of clinically significant

bacteriuria

B. Formation of nitrite is unaffected by the

urine pH

C. The test is dependent upon an adequate dietary

nitrate content

D. A positive test differentiates bacteriuria from in

vitro bacterial contamination

Correct Answer: C

Which statement about the dry reagent strip test for leukocytes is true?

A. The test detects only intact white blood

cells (WBCs)

B. The reaction is based upon the hydrolysis of

substrate by WBC esterases

C. Several antibiotics may give a false-positive

reaction

D. The test is sensitive to 2-3 WBCs per HPF

Body fluids/Apply principles of basic laboratory procedures/Leukocytes/2

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following statements about creatinine clearance is correct?

A. Dietary restrictions are required during the

24 hours preceding the test

B. Fluid intake must be restricted to below 600 mL

in the 6 hours preceding the test

C. Creatinine clearance is mainly determined by

renal tubular function

D. Creatinine clearance is dependent upon lean

body mass

Correct Answer: D

A male patient's eGFR is 75 mL/min. This indicates:

A. Normal glomerular filtration rate

B. The patient is uremic and will be hyperkalemic

C. Renal tubular dysfunction

D. Reduced glomerular filtration without uremia

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following tests is a specific measure of glomerular filtration?

A. p-Aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance

B. Fishberg concentration test

C. Mosenthal dilution test

D. Cystatin C

Correct Answer: d

Which statement regarding urea is true?

A. Urea is 100% filtered by the glomeruli

B. Blood urea levels are independent of diet

C. Urea is not significantly reabsorbed by the

tubules

D. Urea excretion is a specific measure of glomerular

function

Correct Answer: A

Given the following data, calculate the creatinine clearance.

Serum creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL; urine creatinine = 100 mg/dL; urine volume = 1.4 L/day; body surface area = 1.80 m2

A. 47 mL/min

B. 78 mL/min

C. 100 mL/min

D. 116 mL/min

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer-Malbin stain?

A. Hematoxylin and eosin

B. Crystal violet and safranin

C. Methylene blue and eosin

D. Methylene blue and safranin

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

A. "Glitter cells" seen in the urinary sediment are a

sign of renal disease

B. Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates

lower urinary tract infection (UTI)

C. WBCs other than PMNs are not found in

urinary sediment

D. WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather

than lower urinary, origin

Correct Answer: D

Which description of sediment with Sternheimer-Malbin stain is correct?

A. Transitional epithelium: cytoplasm pale blue,

nucleus dark blue

B. Renal epithelium: cytoplasm light blue, nucleus

dark purple

C. Glitter cells: cytoplasm dark blue, nucleus dark

purple

D. Squamous epithelium: cytoplasm pink, nucleus

pale blue

Correct Answer: A

SITUATION: A 5-mL urine specimen is submitted for routine urinalysis and analyzed immediately. The SG of the sample is 1.012 and the pH is 6.5. The dry reagent strip test for blood is a large positive (3+) and the microscopic examination shows 11-20 RBCs per HPF. The leukocyte esterase reaction is a small positive (1+), and the microscopic examination shows 0-5 WBCs per HPF. What is the most likely cause of these results?

A. Myoglobin is present in the sample

B. Free hemoglobin is present

C. Insufficient volume is causing microscopic results

to be underestimated

D. Some WBCs have been misidentified as RBCs

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following statements regarding epithelial cells in the urinary system is correct?

A. Caudate epithelial cells originate from the upper

urethra

B. Transitional cells originate from the upper

urethra, ureters, bladder, or renal pelvis

C. Cells from the proximal renal tubule are usually

round in shape

D. Squamous epithelium line the vagina, urethra,

and wall of the urinary bladder

Correct Answer: B

Which of the statements regarding examination of unstained sediment is true?

A. Renal cells can be differentiated reliably from

WBCs

B. Large numbers of transitional cells are often seen

after catheterization

C. Neoplastic cells from the bladder are not found

in urinary sediment

D. RBCs are easily differentiated from nonbudding

yeast

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following statements regarding cells found in urinary sediment is true?

A. Transitional cells resist swelling in hypotonic

urine

B. Renal tubular cells are often polyhedral and have

an eccentric round nucleus

C. Trichomonads have an oval shape with a

prominent nucleus and a single anterior

flagellum

D. Clumps of bacteria are frequently mistaken for

blood casts

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following statements regarding RBCs in the urinary sediment is true?

A. Yeast cells will lyse in dilute acetic acid but RBCs

will not

B. RBCs are often swollen in hypertonic urine

C. RBCs of glomerular origin often appear

dysmorphic

D. Yeast cells will tumble when the cover glass is

touched but RBCs will not

Correct Answer: C

Renal tubular epithelial cells are shed into the urine in largest numbers in which condition? A. Malignant renal disease

B. Acute glomerulonephritis

C. Nephrotic syndrome

D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney

Correct Answer: D

The ova of which parasite may be found in the urinary sediment?

A. T. vaginalis

B. Entamoeba histolytica

C. Schistosoma hematobium

D. Trichuris trichiura

Correct Answer: C

Oval fat bodies are often seen in:

A. Chronic glomerulonephritis

B. Nephrotic syndrome

C. Acute tubular nephrosis

D. Renal failure of any cause

Correct Answer: B

All of the following statements regarding urinary casts are true except:

A. Many hyaline casts may appear in sediment after

jogging or exercise

B. An occasional granular cast may be seen in a

normal sediment

C. Casts can be seen in significant numbers even

when protein tests are negative

D. Hyaline casts will dissolve readily in alkaline urine

Correct Answer: C

Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?

A. Chronic production of alkaline urine

B. Polyuria

C. Reduced filtrate formation

D. Low urine SG

Correct Answer: C

The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:

A. Bence-Jones protein

B. β-Microglobulin

C. Tamm-Horsfall protein

D. Arginine-rich glycoprotein

Correct Answer: C

"Pseudocasts" are often caused by:

A. A dirty cover glass or slide

B. Bacterial contamination

C. Amorphous urates

D. Mucus in the urine

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following statements regarding urinary casts is correct?

A. Fine granular casts are more significant than

coarse granular casts

B. Cylindruria is always clinically significant

C. The appearance of cylindroids signals the onset

of end-stage renal disease

D. Broad casts are associated with severe renal

tubular obstruction

Correct Answer: D

A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:

A. Chronic pyelonephritis

B. Nephrotic syndrome

C. Acute glomerulonephritis

D. Lower urinary tract obstruction

Corrrect Answer: C

Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:

A. Nephrotic syndrome

B. Pyelonephritis

C. Polycystic kidney disease

D. Cystitis

Correct Answer: B

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

A. Blood casts

B. Fine granular casts

C. Waxy casts

D. Fatty casts

Correct Answer: C

SITUATION: Urinalysis of a sample from a patient suspected of having a transfusion reaction reveals small yellow-brown crystals in the microscopic examination. Dry reagent strip tests are normal with the exception of a positive blood reaction (moderate) and trace positive protein. The pH of the urine is 6.5. What test should be performed to positively identify the crystals?

A. Confirmatory test for bilirubin

B. Cyanide-nitroprusside test

C. Polarizing microscopy

D. Prussian blue stain

Correct Answer: D

When examining urinary sediment, which of the following is considered an abnormal finding?

A. 0-2 RBCs per HPF

B. 0-1 hyaline casts per low-power field (LPF)

C. 0-1 renal cell casts per LPF D. 2-5 WBCs per HPF

Correct Answer: C

SITUATION: A urine sample with a pH of

6.0 produces an abundance of pink sediment after centrifugation that appears as densely packed yellow- to reddish-brown granules under the microscope. The crystals are so dense that no other formed elements can be evaluated. What is the best course of action?

A. Request a new urine specimen

B. Suspend the sediment in prewarmed saline,

then repeat centrifugation

C. Acidify a 12-mL aliquot with three drops of

glacial acetic acid and heat to 56°C for

5 minutes before centrifuging

D. Add five drops of 1N HCl to the sediment and

examine

Correct Answer: B

How can hexagonal uric acid crystals be distinguished from cystine crystals?

A. Cystine is insoluble in hydrochloric acid but uric

acid is soluble

B. Cystine gives a positive nitroprusside test after

reduction with sodium cyanide

C. Cystine crystals are more highly pigmented

D. Cystine crystals form at neutral or alkaline pH, uric acid forms at neutral to acidic pH

Correct Answer: B

The presence of tyrosine and leucine crystals together in a urine sediment usually indicates: A. Renal failure

B. Chronic liver disease

C. Hemolytic anemia

D. Hartnup disease

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathological?

A. Hemosiderin

B. Bilirubin

C. Ammonium biurate

D. Cholesterol

Correct Answer: c

At which pH are ammonium biurate crystals usually found in urine?

A. Acid urine only

B. Acid or neutral urine

C. Neutral or alkaline urine

D. Alkaline urine only

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following crystals is seen commonly in alkaline and neutral urine?

A. Calcium oxalate

B. Uric acid

C. Magnesium ammonium phosphate

D. Cholesterol

Correct Answer: C

Which crystal appears in urine as a long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid?

A. Cystine

B. Hippuric acid

C. Oxalic acid

D. Uric acid

Correct Answer: B

Small yellow needles are seen in the sediment of a urine sample with a pH of 6.0. Which of the following crystals can be ruled out?

A. Sulfa crystals

B. Bilirubin crystals

C. Uric acid crystals

D. Cholesterol crystals

Correct Answer: D

Oval fat bodies are derived from:

A. Renal tubular epithelium

B. Transitional epithelium

C. Degenerated WBCs

D. Mucoprotein matrix

Correct Answer: A

Oval fat bodies are often associated with:

A. Lipoid nephrosis

B. Acute glomerulonephritis

C. Aminoaciduria

D. Pyelonephritis

Correct Answer: A

Urine of constant SG ranging from 1.008 to 1.010 most likely indicates:

A. Addison's disease

B. Renal tubular failure

C. Prerenal failure

D. Diabetes insipidus

Correct. Answer: B

Which of the following characterizes prerenal failure, and helps to differentiate it from acute renal failure caused by renal disease?

A. BUN:creatinine ratio of 20:1 or higher

B. Urine:plasma osmolal ratio less than 2:1

C. Excess loss of sodium in the urine

D. Dehydration

Correct Answer: A

Which of the following conditions characterizes chronic glomerulonephritis and helps to differentiate it from acute glomerulonephritis?

A. Hematuria

B. Polyuria

C. Hypertension

D. Azotemia

Correct Answer: B

Which of the following conditions is seen in acute renal failure and helps to differentiate it from prerenal failure?

A. Hyperkalemia and uremia

B. Oliguria and edema

C. Low creatinine clearance

D. Abnormal urinary sediment

Correct Answer: D

Which of the following conditions characterizes acute renal failure and helps to differentiate it from chronic renal failure?

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Hematuria C. Cylindruria

D. Proteinuria

Correct Answer: A

The serum concentration of which analyte is likely to be decreased in untreated cases of acute renal failure?

A. Hydrogen ions

B. Inorganic phosphorus

C. Calcium

D. Uric acid

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

B. Chronic glomerulonephritis

C. Nephrotic syndrome

D. Acute pyelonephritis

Correct Answer: C

Which of the following conditions is often a cause of glomerulonephritis?

A. Hypertension

B. Cytomegalovirus infection

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

D. Heavy metal poisoning

Correct Answer: C

Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by:

A. Bacterial infection of medullary interstitium

B. Circulatory failure

C. Renal calculi

D. Antigen-antibody reactions within the glomeruli

Correct Answer: A