NCMA215 Nutrition & Diet Therapy – Comprehensive Review Flashcards

A set of 100 question-and-answer flashcards covering therapeutic diets, disease-specific modifications, nutrition therapy, evidence-based practice, legal mandates, ethics, cultural considerations, and entrepreneurship in nutrition, aligned with NCMA215 lecture content.

therapeutic diet

A physician-prescribed, dietitian-planned meal pattern that modifies a regular diet to treat a medical condition.

ordered by physicians and formulated by registered dietitians.

Who normally prescribes and plans therapeutic diets?

What is the main purpose of a clear liquid diet and give two allowed items.

Relieves thirst and maintains water balance after vomiting, diarrhea, or surgery; examples: fat-free broth and gelatin.

For how long is a clear liquid diet usually given?

Only for 24–48 hours.

Describe a full liquid diet and name one indication.

Nutritionally adequate fluids that liquefy at body temperature; used for acute infections or when patients are too ill to chew.

What is another name for the cold liquid diet and who needs it?

"Yin" diet; given to post-tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy patients.

State two key features of a soft diet.

Reduced fiber and bland flavor; meats are minced and vegetables well cooked for easy chewing/digestion.

What does a mechanical soft (dental soft) diet require?

Foods chopped, ground, or minced and served moist with gravy or sauce.

List two alternative names for a regular hospital diet.

General diet; house diet; full hospital diet; diet as tolerated.

When is a light diet usually ordered?

As a transition between soft and regular diets, especially for elders intolerant to rich foods.

Give one advantage and one potential deficiency of vegetarian diets.

Advantage: low saturated fat and high fiber; Deficiency risk: vitamin B12.

Differentiate vegan, lacto-vegetarian, and ovo-vegetarian.

Vegan eats only plant foods; lacto adds milk products; ovo adds eggs.

Define a restricted diet.

Limits a specific nutrient or food component, such as salt-restricted or cholesterol-restricted plans.

What is meant by a controlled diet?

Daily nutrient levels are carefully adjusted (e.g., controlled protein, potassium, or sodium).

What characterizes a pureed diet?

All foods blended to pudding consistency for patients with severe chewing/swallowing problems.

Why are thickened liquids prescribed?

To prevent aspiration in dysphagia by slowing liquid flow.

Which diet is prescribed for acute glomerulonephritis?

Low sodium, low protein.

State the dietary goals during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure.

Low sodium, low protein, high carbohydrate.

What diet modification is needed for Addison’s disease?

High sodium, low potassium.

What kind of foods are emphasized for ADHD patients?

Finger foods that can be eaten quickly during short attention spans.

Give a diet tip for bipolar disorder patients.

Provide portable finger foods to maintain intake during manic episodes.

What type of feeding is common post-cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

Osterized (blenderized) feeding that is low sodium, low cholesterol, high fiber.

State the recommended diet for cholecystitis.

Low fat, high carbohydrate, high protein.

List two restrictions for chronic renal failure diet.

Low protein and low potassium (also low sodium).

How is diet modified in congestive heart failure?

Low sodium and low cholesterol.

What dietary change benefits Cushing disease?

High potassium, low sodium.

Which nutrients need to be increased for decubitus ulcers?

High protein and high vitamin C.

Dengue fever dietary advice?

Diet as tolerated but avoid dark-colored foods that could mimic bleeding.

What constitutes a well-balanced diet for diabetes mellitus?

Controlled calories with roughly twice as much carbohydrate as protein and moderate fat, using exchange lists.

What diet is ordered for diverticulitis?

Low fiber to minimize bowel irritation.

Dumping syndrome diet recommendation?

High fat, high protein, low simple carbohydrate.

How is diet adjusted for hepatic encephalopathy?

Low protein, high calorie to reduce ammonia production.

Explain the diet for Hirschsprung’s disease.

High calorie, high protein, low residue.

What is the calorie focus for overweight or obese clients?

Low calorie diet to create an energy deficit.

Which nutrients are stressed in pernicious anemia?

High protein plus vitamin B12 replacement.

Diet order for tonsillitis in acute phase?

Clear liquid diet.

List the main components of the ulcerative colitis diet in remission.

High protein, high calories, low residue.

Why is a bland diet prescribed?

To eliminate irritating foods so gastric/duodenal ulcers can heal.

Purpose of a high-fiber diet?

Adds bulk and water to stool to relieve constipation and diverticulosis.

When is a low-residue diet indicated?

To reduce fiber after colon surgery, in Crohn’s disease, or severe diarrhea.

What calorie ceiling defines a very-low-calorie diet (VLCD)?

800 kcal per day or less under medical supervision.

Name one condition that may warrant a high-calorie diet (>4,000 kcal).

Severe burns, cancer cachexia, cystic fibrosis, or competitive athletics.

For which situations is a high-protein diet prescribed?

Hypercatabolic states like severe burns, sepsis, or pre-operative protein depletion.

Give one contraindication to a high-protein diet.

Severe liver failure or advanced renal insufficiency causing azotemia.

Who typically needs a low-protein diet?

Patients with liver failure or chronic kidney disease to reduce ammonia/urea load.

Why is a low-fat diet recommended?

To lower cholesterol and saturated fat, reducing cardiovascular risk.

List two conditions besides obesity managed by low-carbohydrate diets.

Type 2 diabetes and epilepsy (ketogenic variations).

What is the usual sodium cap in a low-sodium diet?

1,500–2,400 mg sodium per day.

Define low potassium intake numerically.

Less than 2,000 mg potassium per day.

Why is a low-purine diet ordered?

To decrease uric acid production and prevent gout attacks.

Name the four foods in the BRAT diet and its use.

Banana, Rice, Applesauce, Toast; for diarrhea recovery.

What is the primary goal of the DASH diet?

Lower blood pressure by emphasizing fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and low-fat dairy.

Describe the ketogenic diet and its therapeutic use.

High fat, very low carbohydrate diet that induces ketosis; used to control epilepsy and for weight loss.

Which core foods are emphasized in the Paleo diet?

Meat, fish, eggs, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and healthy oils while avoiding grains and sugar.

What is an elemental diet?

A medical liquid-only diet composed of pre-digested nutrients for easy intestinal absorption.

State the main idea behind the South Beach diet.

Choosing the right types of carbohydrates and fats rather than eliminating them completely.

Give two nursing responsibilities related to a patient’s nutritional care.

Assess intake/tolerance and collaborate with dietitians in planning or modifying therapeutic diets.

List two essentials of good hospital tray service.

Clean, uncluttered tray of adequate size and food served at proper temperature on time.

Differentiate BMI ranges for overweight and obesity.

Overweight BMI 25–29.9 kg/m²; obesity BMI 30–39.9 kg/m².

In diabetes meal planning, how much carbohydrate is generally allowed compared with protein?

Approximately twice the grams of protein.

What three characteristics must a peptic-ulcer bland diet meet?

Nutritive adequacy, soft/bland consistency, and minimal mechanical/chemical stimulation.

How is fiber intake changed for diverticular disease management?

Gradually increase dietary fiber with bran and whole grains to reduce colon pressure.

Which foods must be removed from diets of celiac sprue patients?

All gluten-containing grains such as wheat, rye, barley, and oats (unless certified GF).

What diet is used during the acute stage of ulcerative colitis?

Low-residue diet to minimize bowel stimulation.

How is lactose intolerance managed nutritionally?

Avoid milk and whey-containing foods; use lactose-free products or lactase enzyme supplements.

Initial fluid guidance for acute diarrhea?

Begin with NPO plus IV fluids for 12 h, then liberal oral rehydration to prevent dehydration.

Dietary management for chronic constipation?

High-fiber foods with liberal fluid intake.

Give two diet tips to relieve hemorrhoids.

Increase dietary fiber and fluids; avoid highly seasoned foods.

What are two dietary recommendations for GERD?

Avoid high-fat large meals and maintain ideal body weight; use low-fat protein and carbohydrate foods.

Protein recommendation for acute hepatitis?

Increase high-quality animal protein to help liver repair (e.g., extra milk or egg).

State the usual protein and sodium limits for cirrhosis with edema.

100 g protein with sodium restricted to about 250 mg/day.

Which condiments are avoided in cholecystitis diets?

Butter, margarine, and rich sauces; use lemon juice or fat-free dressings instead.

Feeding approach during an acute pancreatitis attack?

NPO for about 48 hours, then low-fat elemental enteral formula if needed.

What fat and cholesterol limits are set for atherosclerosis prevention?

Low total fat, low saturated fat, and cholesterol ≤300 mg/day; boost omega-3 intake.

Give the sodium allowance range for congestive heart failure.

Mild 2–3 g to severe 250 mg per day, depending on severity.

Describe diet progression after a myocardial infarction.

Begin with liquid diet, advance to small frequent meals while restricting caffeine, fat, sodium.

List diet priorities in nephrotic syndrome.

High calorie, high protein, low sodium to counter massive protein losses.

What fluid advice is standard for renal calculi prevention?

High fluid intake to dilute urine; calcium oxalate stones call for low calcium/oxalate foods.

State the energy and protein needs for HIV/AIDS clients.

Energy 35–45 kcal/kg and protein 2–2.5 g/kg body weight, with extra vitamins/minerals.

Name the three subcomponents of the Health Belief Model.

Individual perceptions, modifying factors, and likelihood of action.

List Bandura’s four sources of self-efficacy information.

Performance accomplishments, vicarious experiences, verbal persuasion, emotional arousal.

Identify the six stages in the Stages of Change model.

Pre-contemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance, Termination.

According to the Theory of Reasoned Action, what predicts behavior?

A person’s intention, based on attitudes toward the behavior and subjective norms.

Define a therapeutic alliance in patient education.

A collaborative partnership where nurse and client share equal power to achieve self-care goals.

Give Sackett’s classic definition of Evidence-Based Practice (EBP).

Conscientious use of current best evidence along with clinical expertise and patient values in care decisions.

What is considered the highest level in the evidence hierarchy?

Evidence from meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials.

What is the first step in the Iowa Model of EBP?

Identify a nursing problem and search the literature about it.

Which Presidential Decree established National Nutrition Month in the Philippines?

Presidential Decree 491, the Nutrition Act of 1974.

What does Executive Order 51 regulate?

Marketing of breast-milk substitutes, supplements, and related products in the Philippines.

State the focus of Republic Act 7600.

Promotes rooming-in and breastfeeding practices in health facilities.

What is the main goal of the ASIN Law (RA 8172)?

Universal salt iodization to eliminate iodine-deficiency disorders.

Name two staple foods mandated for fortification by RA 8976.

Rice with iron and refined sugar with vitamin A (also wheat flour and cooking oil with vitamin A).

What is one objective of the Food and Drug Administration Act (RA 9711)?

Strengthen FDA’s capacity to regulate food, drugs, and related products.

List one workplace requirement under the Expanded Breastfeeding Promotion Act (RA 10028).

Establishment of lactation stations and paid lactation periods for breastfeeding employees.

What is the overarching aim of the Food Safety Act of 2013?

Implement a farm-to-fork regulatory system ensuring safe, fair, and globally competitive food.

State one objective of the Nutrition and Dietetics Law of 2016 (RA 10862).

Standardize and regulate nutrition and dietetics education, licensure, and practice.

What population focus does RA 11148 ("Kalusugan at Nutrisyon ng Mag-Nanay") emphasize?

Health and nutrition of mothers and children in the first 1,000 days of life.

How does the ethical principle of autonomy apply to end-of-life nutrition decisions?

Patients (or their advance directives) retain the right to accept or refuse nutrition and hydration.

Give one major Islamic dietary restriction.

Prohibition of pork and pork products, along with alcohol.

What is the main purpose of the Pinggang Pinoy food plate?

Provides a visual guide to proper portion sizes per meal for the average Filipino adult.