✓Audiology Praxis 5343 Study Set #1

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
Locked
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/288

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 7:09 PM on 5/28/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

289 Terms

1
New cards

What is the LTASS?

Long-term average speech spectrum.

2
New cards

What is the dynamic range of the LTASS in dB?

30 dB

3
New cards

The LTASS is also known as what other well known audiology tool?

The speech banana. (It is just replotted in dB HL on the audiogram.)

4
New cards

Reverberation is the time it takes for reflected sounds to die down by how many dB from cessation of the source sound?

60 dB

5
New cards

What signal-to-noise (SNR) is needed for satisfactory communication?

+6 SNR

6
New cards

Potential advantage of binaural hearing aid fitting.

Elimination of the head shadow effect (10 to 15 dB attenuation of sound, mostly high frequency, by the head when sound arrives from contralateral side.

7
New cards

What are some advantages of doing a binaural fitting versus a unilateral hearing aid fitting?

1) decreases head shadow effect,

2) loudness summation (2 - 8 dB, depends on many factors),

3) improved sound localization,

4) binaural redundancy,

5) binaural squelch

8
New cards

What are a few advantages of CIC hearing aids?

1) cosmetics,

2) preservation of sound localization,

3) reduce wind noise,

4) natural pinna effects,

5) some high frequency benefit >2000 Hz.

9
New cards

What are some drawbacks to CIC hearing aids?

1) dexterity/vision concerns, 2) size 10 battery (life/size), 3) no directional mics, telecoils

10
New cards

What hearing aid can be placed in the ear for extended periods and how long is the time it can stay in the canal?

The Lyric IIC is an extended wear aid that must be inserted by a professional and can remain in the canal for three to four (3-4) months.

11
New cards

What are potential benefits of bilateral hearing aid fittings?

1) elimination of head shadow effect, 2) loud summation, 3) sound localization, 4) improved speech in noise perception

12
New cards

How much attenuation occurs from the head shadow effect and in what frequency range?

10 - 15 dB attenuation of sound, mainly in high frequencies

13
New cards

What dB of benefit comes from loudness summation?

2 - 8 dB depending on various factors

14
New cards

Why is speech in noise perception improved with a bilateral fitting?

There is a 2 to 3 dB better SNR with bilateral fitting due to binaural redundancy and binaural squelch

15
New cards

What are some potential contraindications to binaural fitting of HA's?

1) degree of hearing loss, 2) cost, 3) convenience, 4) binaural interference, 5) perceived benefit

16
New cards

What are the two primary concerns/considerations when fitting any hearing aid?

1) acoustic feedback, 2) occlusion effect

17
New cards

When one takes measures to decrease feedback, what other problem can then arise?

Occlusion effect (sometimes you have to balance b/t feedback & occlusion effect)

<p>Occlusion effect (sometimes you have to balance b/t feedback &amp; occlusion effect)</p>
18
New cards

Describe the occlusion effect.

It is an increase in low frequencies (generally <500 Hz.) that occurs when the ear canal is occluded that causes a "hallow" or "booming" sound in the ear when the client talks or chews.

19
New cards

What are strategies for treating the occlusion effect?

1) go to an open style dome, 2) add venting to ear mold (both of these strategies allow the escape of low frequency sounds)

20
New cards

When attempting to decrease the occlusion effect with vents or open style domes, what other problem can arise?

Feedback (with enough amplification open style domes, vents or slits can allow feedback to occur)

<p>Feedback (with enough amplification open style domes, vents or slits can allow feedback to occur)</p>
21
New cards

What is the main amplification benefit of deep canal CIC (or IIC)?

4 dB greater output in lows & 8 - 10 dB greater output at 4 KHz.

<p>4 dB greater output in lows &amp; 8 - 10 dB greater output at 4 KHz.</p>
22
New cards

What are some advantages of open canal fittings?

1) cosmetic,

2) relief from occlusion effect,

3) comfort,

4) preservation of natural ear canal resonance,

5) sound quality,

6) strong client preference for open-fit mini-BTE style HA's

23
New cards

What are some of the factors that affect style selection of HA's?

1) hearing loss, 2) cosmetics, 3) ear canal shape/size, 4) presence of cerumen, 5) dexterity/vision, 6) comfort, 7) communication needs, 8)environment used in

24
New cards

What are the symptoms of Meniere's disease?

1) episodic rotary vertigo,

2) roaring tinnitus,

3) rising (reverse) SNHL,

4) sometimes aural fullness also. [generally starts unilaterally then can become bilateral in @ 2 yrs.]

<p>1) episodic rotary vertigo,</p><p>2) roaring tinnitus,</p><p>3) rising (reverse) SNHL,</p><p>4) sometimes aural fullness also. [generally starts unilaterally then can become bilateral in @ 2 yrs.]</p>
25
New cards

What is the popular documented cause of Meniere's disease?

Increase in endolymph or endolymphatic hydrops.

26
New cards

Main electrolytes in endolymph.

Mainly composed of high quantities of potassium (K+) and low quantities of sodium (Na+).

27
New cards

What is the prevalence of Meniere's disease in the US?

100-200 per 100,000 (or 0.2%)

28
New cards

What population is generally affected by Meniere's disease?

Generally occurs in adulthood, but numbers increase rapidly around 60 yrs. of age.

29
New cards

Of the two fluids in the inner ear, which is closer in composition to the fluid of the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)?

Perilymph.

30
New cards

Perilymph is sodium rich and very similar to what other body fluid?

Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF).

31
New cards

What is the main cause of endolymphatic hydrops in Meniere's disease?

An overabundance of endolymph in the scala media (cochlear duct).

32
New cards

What theories are there about the causes of Meniere's disease?

1) too much secretion of endolymph in the scala media, 2) not enough endolymph absorption by the endolymphatic sac, 3) autoimmune disorder

33
New cards

Describe the basilar membrane in reference to its' width at the base and apex.

The high frequency base is narrow (stiff) and the low frequency apex is wider (more mass).

34
New cards

Contrast mass and stiffness in relation to the basilar membrane.

The base is more stiff (less mass) and the apex has more mass (less stiff).

35
New cards

Why does endolymphatic hydrops affect the low frequency portion of the hearing first?

Because the wider apex end is less stiff and will start bulging (and rupture) first before the stiffer basal (high freq.) end of the cochlea.

<p>Because the wider apex end is less stiff and will start bulging (and rupture) first before the stiffer basal (high freq.) end of the cochlea.</p>
36
New cards

Describe some treatments for Meniere's disease.

1) low salt diet,

2) oral steroids,

3) endolymphatic shunt,

4) gentamicin injections into scala tympani,

5) vestibular neurectomy or labyrinthectomy.

37
New cards

What classes of drugs are generally considered ototoxic?

1) aminoglycoside antibiotics,

2) loop diuretics,

3) salicylates & NSAIDS,

4) quinine (& derivatives),

5) cytotoxic (chemo) drugs,

6) solvents,

7) anti-malarials

38
New cards

When do patients generally notice tinnitus the most?

When in quiet environments or under stress.

39
New cards

What are the two types of hair cells in the cochlea and their function?

Inner & outer hair cells. IHC's (1 row) of mainly afferent hair cells and OHC's (3 rows) of mainly efferent hair cells.

<p>Inner &amp; outer hair cells. IHC's (1 row) of mainly afferent hair cells and OHC's (3 rows) of mainly efferent hair cells.</p>
40
New cards

Describe otosclerosis.

A conductive HL that typically occurs with a notch at around 2 KHz. on the audiogram (the air-bone gap is smallest at 2 KHz.)

<p>A conductive HL that typically occurs with a notch at around 2 KHz. on the audiogram (the air-bone gap is smallest at 2 KHz.)</p>
41
New cards

What is the basic etiology of otosclerosis?

1) growth around stapes footplate,

2) hereditary (autosomal dominant),

3) more in caucasians,

4) ages 15-45,

5) during puberty & pregnancy,

6) female: male ratio 2:1

<p>1) growth around stapes footplate,</p><p>2) hereditary (autosomal dominant),</p><p>3) more in caucasians,</p><p>4) ages 15-45,</p><p>5) during puberty &amp; pregnancy,</p><p>6) female: male ratio 2:1</p>
42
New cards

Who theorized the traveling wave theory (passive function) in 1940's?

Georg von Bekesy.

43
New cards

Who theorized that cochlear function was more of an active process in 1948?

Thomas Gold.

<p>Thomas Gold.</p>
44
New cards

Who was the first person to record OAE's in 1978?

David Kemp

45
New cards

What are the three (3) types of otoacoustic emissions?

1) spontaneous, 2) stimulus frequency, 3) transient evoked, 4) distorsion product

46
New cards

Distortion product formula?

2f1 - f2

47
New cards

At what age is Visual Reinforcement Audiometry appropriate?

Best for 6 to 24 months.

48
New cards

At what age is Conditioned Play Audiometry appropriate?

Best for 3 yrs. to early school age.

49
New cards

When is traditional audiometry appropriate for children?

Best for 4-5 years forward.

50
New cards

What is BOA?

Behavioral Observation Audiometry (BOA)

51
New cards

Describe difference theory.

Predicts that auditory responsiveness displayed by developmentally delayed children will be varied and unpredictable.

52
New cards

Describe Developmental theory.

Predicts that a child with developmental delays will progress through the same maturation sequence as the normal child, only slower.

53
New cards

ABR: Wave I originates in what part of the auditory pathway?

Cochlea

54
New cards

What are the ABCDs started in the 1990's that are part of the Universal Newborn Hearing Screening's high risk register?

Affected family;

Bilirubin level;

Congenital rubella syndrome;

Defects of the ear, nose and throat;

Small birth weight.

55
New cards

When did Kansas enact legislation for UNHS?

July 1, 1990.

56
New cards

What is the MCL.

most comfortable loudness level.

57
New cards

What does ANSI stand for?

American National Standards Institute.

58
New cards

What is the ANSI standard that has been the defining document for hearing performance since 1977?

ANSI S3.22

59
New cards

A graphical representation of the hearing aid output as a function of frequency is referred to as ?

Frequency response curve

<p>Frequency response curve</p>
60
New cards

Define MPO.

Maximum Peak Output - is the highest possible signal that a hearing aid is capable of delivering.

61
New cards

What term is used to express when a hearing aids input level and gain exceed the MPO?

saturation

62
New cards

What is peak clipping?

What the output level would exceed the MPO and the hearing aid stops the output at the MPO causing the sound to be clipped. This is one method of controlling the output so that the aid does not exceed safe out levels.

63
New cards

What happens to the sound output when peak clipping occurs?

Sounds are distorted, often described as sounding "scratchy."

64
New cards

Define distortion.

Refers to the presence of frequency components in the output that were not present in the aids input.

65
New cards

What the the two types of distortion?

Harmonic and intermodulation.

66
New cards

Define harmonic distortion.

When a certain frequency of input (ex. 500 Hz.) results in harmonics of that frequency being in the output of the signal such as 1 KHz, 2 KHz, and so on. The distortion frequencies will always be greater than the original and a multiple of that frequency.

67
New cards

Define intermodulation distortion.

Occurs when two frequencies are presented together and the output of the signal contains frequencies that are mathematically related to the sum or/and difference of the two input frequencies. This type of distortion can be either greater or less than the original frequencies unlike harmonic distortion.

(Principle used in DPOAE's.)

68
New cards

Describe an ipsilateral acoustic reflex pathway.

A loud sound travels from cochlea (to) cochlear nucleus (to) superior olivary complex (to) facial nerve nucleus (to) stapedius muscle causing contraction.

<p>A loud sound travels from cochlea (to) cochlear nucleus (to) superior olivary complex (to) facial nerve nucleus (to) stapedius muscle causing contraction.</p>
69
New cards

What is the detection criteria for acoustic reflexes?

0.03 (at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hertz)

70
New cards

If patient has an acoustic reflex at 90 dB, what is their estimated acoustic threshold?

0-30 dB HL. (estimated thresholds are 60-90 dB below the patient's reflex threshold).

71
New cards

During acoustic reflex decay, how long is the tone presented?

10 seconds

72
New cards

How much acoustic reflex decay indicates a retrocochlear pathology?

>50% (comparison is made b/t the initial reflex and at the end of the 10 sec. window)

<p>&gt;50% (comparison is made b/t the initial reflex and at the end of the 10 sec. window)</p>
73
New cards

What is the purpose of the acoustic reflex?

To block the upward spread of masking of your own voice at low frequencies.

74
New cards

Does the acoustic reflex attenuate sounds at all frequencies equally?

No. It attenuates low sounds and a few high frequencies. Actually, at some frequencies the sounds are actually amplified (esp. at 1 KHz.)

75
New cards

The acoustic reflex is tested using what probe tone?

226 Hz.

76
New cards

What is AIED?

Auto-immune inner ear disease.

77
New cards

Describe normal or abnormal Romberg test.

Normal - patient should not fall or increase sway for 30 seconds.

Abnormal - patient has an increase in sway, stagger.

<p>Normal - patient should not fall or increase sway for 30 seconds.</p><p>Abnormal - patient has an increase in sway, stagger.</p>
78
New cards

What is the site of lesion for an abnormal Romberg test?

Lower limb proprioceptive spinal reflex arc.

79
New cards

What is the WIPI test?

Word Intelligibility by Picture Identification (WIPI)

80
New cards

What are symptoms of Superior Canal Dehiscence?

1) imbalance,

2) sound-induced vertigo,

3) pulsatile tinnitus,

4) autophony,

5) aural fullness,

6) oscillopsia

81
New cards

What is innervated by the inferior vestibular nerve?

Saccule & posterior SCC. (Just think of the anatomy; inferior nerve innervates inferior parts. The posterior SCC is the most inferior of the canals & the saccule is inferior to the utricle.)

82
New cards

What would be considered an abnormal Fukada stepping test?

When the patient has a rotation of 30 degrees (for 50 steps) in either direction. (direction of rotation generally accepted as being side of weaker labrinth)

83
New cards

What is another name for the Fukada stepping test?

Unterberger test.

84
New cards

What are the 6 types of prebycusis?

1) sensory, 2) neural, 3) strial, 4) cochlear conductive, 5) mixed presbycusis, 5) intermediate presbycusis

85
New cards

What is vasovagal syncope?

When you have a sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure leading to fainting. This is often the reaction to stressful trigger such as the sight of blood, fear or anxiety.

86
New cards

What are some symptoms of Pendred's syndrome?

SNHL

Thyroid problems

Kidney issues

87
New cards

What is Pendred syndrome?

Genetic disorder leading to congenital bilateral SNHL and goiter with euthyroid or mild hypothyroidism. (also known as Goiter-deafness syndrome)

<p>Genetic disorder leading to congenital bilateral SNHL and goiter with euthyroid or mild hypothyroidism. (also known as Goiter-deafness syndrome)</p>
88
New cards

How large of an asymmetry is needed before you can administer the Stenger test?

30 dB

89
New cards

Symptoms of otosclerosis.

Carhart's notch

type As tymp in affected ear

Schwartz sign

<p>Carhart's notch</p><p>type As tymp in affected ear</p><p>Schwartz sign</p>
90
New cards

What is Schwartz sign in otosclerosis?

A pink color noted through the TM.

<p>A pink color noted through the TM.</p>
91
New cards

What is the COSI?

Client Oriented Scale of Improvement

An open-ended scale in which the client identifies up to 5 areas of listening difficulty (from a list of 16) upon which to focus for improvement

92
New cards

What is the APHAB?

Abbreviated Profile of Hearing Aid Benefit. The APHAB is a more clinical friendly measure of outcome.

93
New cards

What four subscales does the APHAB focus on?

The APHAB uses 24 items that focus on 4 subscales:

ease of communication

reverberation

background noise

aversiveness of sounds

94
New cards

What is the HAPI?

Hearing Aid Performance Inventory

95
New cards

What is the SADL?

Satisfaction with Amplification in Daily Life

96
New cards

What is the HHIA or HHIE?

Hearing Handicap Inventory for Adults (or Elderly). It is a 25 item questionnaire with 2 subscales (emotional consequences & social and situational effects) to measure the perceived effects of hearing loss.

There is a 10 question screener as well.

97
New cards

What is the MarkeTrak Satisfaction Survey?

It is a 48 item questionnaire with several subscales used to obtain the patient's satisfaction as it relates to specific hearing aid features and listening environments.

It is published every four years.

98
New cards

Purpose of a Libby horn.

Increase high frequency response.

<p>Increase high frequency response.</p>
99
New cards

How many sweeps should you take when performing an ABR?

800 (minimum) - 2,000

100
New cards

What is the mathematical formula related to fmp in ABR testing?

Fmp ~ (S/N)^2 (signal-to-noise ratio squared)