(2)Study group haem practical

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Last updated 6:59 PM on 7/1/26
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65 Terms

1
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What is the most prominent abnormality in acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) on peripheral blood film?

Presence of numerous large blast cells.

2
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What nuclear feature do blast cells in AML typically have?

High nuclear-to-cytoplasmic (N:C) ratio.

3
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What chromatin pattern is seen in AML blasts?

Fine (delicate) chromatin.

4
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What cytoplasmic feature is typical of AML blasts?

Scant, thin basophilic agranular cytoplasm.

5
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What are the major differential diagnoses of blast cells on peripheral blood film?

AML, ALL, Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS), and leukemoid reaction.

6
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What is the most likely diagnosis when numerous myeloid blasts are present?

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML).

7
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What does AML M0 represent in the FAB classification?

Minimally differentiated AML.

8
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What does AML M1 represent?

AML without maturation.

9
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What does AML M2 represent?

AML with maturation.

10
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Which AML subtype is acute promyelocytic leukaemia?

AML M3.

11
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Which chromosomal translocation is associated with AML M3?

t(15;17).

12
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What does AML M4 represent?

Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia.

13
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What does AML M4Eo represent?

Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia with eosinophilia.

14
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What does AML M5 represent?

Acute monocytic leukaemia.

15
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What does AML M6 represent?

Acute erythroid leukaemia.

16
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What does AML M7 represent?

Acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia.

17
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Which coagulation test is prolonged in Haemophilia A?

aPTT.

18
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Which coagulation test is normal in Haemophilia A?

PT.

19
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Which clotting factor is deficient in Haemophilia A?

Factor VIII.

20
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Can Haemophilia A occur in females?

Yes, rarely (e.g., Turner syndrome).

21
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What is the mainstay of treatment for Haemophilia A?

Factor VIII replacement therapy.

22
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Which recombinant hormone can be used in mild Haemophilia A?

Desmopressin (DDAVP).

23
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Which antifibrinolytic drug is useful in Haemophilia A?

Tranexamic acid.

24
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What is the commonest joint complication of Haemophilia A?

Haemarthrosis.

25
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What chronic joint complication results from recurrent haemarthroses?

Haemophilic arthropathy.

26
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Name a life-threatening neurological complication of Haemophilia A.

Intracranial haemorrhage.

27
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Which bleeding disorder is the main differential diagnosis of Haemophilia A?

Haemophilia B.

28
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Which inherited bleeding disorder affects both factor VIII and platelet function?

Von Willebrand disease.

29
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What are the laboratory features of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

Prolonged PT, prolonged aPTT, thrombocytopenia, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer, elevated FDPs, schistocytes, prolonged thrombin time.

30
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Which clotting factor product is commonly used to treat DIC?

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP).

31
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Which blood product is given in DIC for thrombocytopenia?

Platelet concentrates.

32
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Which blood product provides fibrinogen in DIC?

Cryoprecipitate.

33
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What is the major renal complication of DIC?

Acute kidney injury.

34
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What respiratory complication can occur in DIC?

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).

35
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Which peripheral blood smear finding supports DIC?

Schistocytes.

36
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AML associated with DIC commonly presents with which blood film finding?

Blast cells.

37
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Which cytochemical stain identifies myeloid lineage?

Myeloperoxidase (MPO).

38
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Which stain highlights lipids in myeloid cells?

Sudan Black B.

39
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Which stain is commonly positive in ALL?

Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS).

40
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Which stain is diagnostic for Hairy Cell Leukaemia?

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP).

41
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Which stain demonstrates iron stores?

Prussian Blue stain.

42
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Which stain is positive in monocytes?

Non-specific esterase (NSE).

43
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Which stain highlights granulocytic cells?

Chloroacetate esterase (CAE).

44
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Which stain demonstrates bone marrow fibrosis?

Reticulin stain.

45
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Which stain is routinely used for peripheral blood films?

Leishman stain.

46
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Which stain is useful for malaria parasites?

Giemsa stain.

47
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What are the phases of treatment for ALL?

Induction, consolidation, maintenance and CNS prophylaxis.

48
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What are the phases of treatment for AML?

Induction therapy and consolidation therapy.

49
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What is the initial management strategy for asymptomatic CLL?

Watch and wait.

50
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What are the phases of CML management?

Chronic phase, accelerated phase, blast crisis and long-term TKI therapy.

51
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Which morphological features support AML on blood film?

Numerous large blasts, high N:C ratio, prominent nucleoli, scant cytoplasm and minimal maturation.

52
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How are AML blasts generally distinguished from ALL blasts?

AML blasts are larger with more cytoplasm, granules and may contain Auer rods.

53
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How are ALL blasts typically described?

Smaller cells with high N:C ratio, scant cytoplasm and no granules.

54
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Which FAB subtype of ALL has small uniform blasts?

L1.

55
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What peripheral blood finding is characteristic of CML?

Leucocytosis with the full spectrum of myeloid cells.

56
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Which mature cells predominate over blasts in CML?

Neutrophils and myelocytes.

57
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Which additional circulating granulocyte is commonly increased in CML?

Basophils.

58
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Which oral drug class is the standard treatment for CML?

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs).

59
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Which first-generation TKI is used for CML?

Imatinib.

60
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Name two second-generation TKIs used for CML.

Dasatinib and Nilotinib.

61
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Name two third-generation TKIs used for CML.

Ponatinib and Asciminib.

62
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Which investigations confirm CML?

CBC, peripheral blood smear, bone marrow aspirate/biopsy and genetic/molecular testing.

63
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What peripheral blood film feature strongly suggests megaloblastic anaemia?

Hypersegmented neutrophils with macro-ovalocytes.

64
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Which vitamin deficiencies cause megaloblastic anaemia?

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.

65
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What is the treatment for megaloblastic anaemia?

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) and folic acid supplementation.