Applied Pharm Final Exam

If a patient needs a basal insulin but is a poor complier?

A. glarine (lantus)

B. lisro (humulog)

C. Novolin 70/30

D. isophane (NPH)

Novolin

If patient is seizing and IV is unable to be started which route is preferred for a large patient?

A. IM

B. IN

C. Rectal

D. SQ

IN

Which of the following drugs can cause patient to "freeze"

A. Levodopa/carbidopa

B. Phenytoin

D. Donepezil

D. Exenatide

Levodopa/carbidopa

Which drug is used to treat DI

A. desmopressin

B. hydrocortisone

C. basal insulin

D. prednisone

desmopressin

Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) were discovered from cultures of

A. penicillin

B. yogurt

C. gram neg rods

D. jellyfish

yogurt ew

Which diuretic would be helpful with SIADH

A. Conivaptan

B. Spironolactone

C. Bumetanide

D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Conivaptan

Global initiative on asthma recommend which additional drug besides a short acting beta 2 (albuterol) as a first line tx for asthma

A. Fluticasone (Flovent)

B. Terbutaline

C. Mepolizumab

D. Montelukast

Fluticasone (Flovent)

Which of the following shows significant adsorption to a container?

A. isopropyl alcohol

B. insulin

C. epi

D. D5W

insulin

The following are examples of therapeutic incompatibilities EXCEPT

A. Naloxone (Narcan) and morphine

B. Cranberry juice and sodium bicarb

C. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

D. Lactulose and aluminum hydroxide

Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

Issues involving therapeutic drug monitoring include the following except

A. gender

B. illness severity

C. other drugs administered

D. Adverse effects of drug being administered whose level is being checked

gender

The pharmacologic mechanism for the latest treatment of refractory urge incontinence is

A. Anticholinergic

B. Beta 3 agonist

C. ACE inhibition

D. Cholinesterase inhibitor

Beta 3 agonist

Hypokalemic is often corrected with addition of which electrolyte

A. Ca

B. phosphorus

C. Mg

D. Cl

Mg

CRISPR applications may significantly help in the following diseases except

A. Muscular dystrophy

B. Viral pneumonia

C. Sickle cell anemia

D. Cystic fibrosis

Viral pneumonia

Most therapeutic drug monitoring

A.Anticonvulsants

B. Antibiotics

C. Cardiac drugs

D. Antidepressants

Anticonvulsants

IBD often causes significant deficiency of

A. Mg

B. Na

C. Phosphate

D. K

Mg

Hypophosphatemia can cause

A. Cardiac arrhythmia

B. Resp depression

C. Acute renal failure

D. Constipation

Resp depression

Which of the following drugs used for gout should be avoided in patient with cardiovascular RF such as stroke

A. Celecoxib (celebrex)

B. allopurinol

C. colchicine

D. indomethacin

Celecoxib (celebrex)

When a drug use, indication, route of administration is not reflected in FDA product labeling, this is considered a

A. Unlabeled drug

B. Investigational drug

C. Hazardous drug

D. Non formulary drug

unlabeled drug

Cannabinoid receptors can be found in

A. Brain

B. Lungs

C. Heart

D. All

all

Hyponatremia is commonly seen with

A. Oxcarbazepine

B. Furosemide

C. Lisinopril

D. valsartan

Oxcarbazepine

Operational aspects of investigational drugs include all the following except

A. informed consent

B. universal prescribers

C. drug monitor safety board

D.study hypothesis

universal prescribers

which of the following drugs is most likely from a specialty pharmacy

A. teduglutide

B. amiodarone

C. ciprofloxacin

D. duloxetine

teduglutide

which of the following disease states is usually serviced by specialty pharmacy

A. HF

B. Unipolar depression

C. HIV

D. Chronic bronchitis

HIV

An example of an unlabeled drug is

A. Memantine (Namenda) for OCD

B. Albuterol for asthma

C. Levetiracetam (Keppra) for partial seizures

D. Metformin (glucophage) for DM type 2

Memantine (Namenda) for OCD

Which of the following uses nanomedicine EXCEPT?

A. oncology

B. sunburn prevention

C. hypercholesterolemia

D. drug overdose

drug overdose

DOC for MRSA in hospitalized patients?

A. Cipro

B. Vanco

C. Diflucan

vanco

DOC for surgical prophylaxis?

Cefazolin

How much would you wait to draw labs for IV iron replacement effectiveness?

4 weeks

Pt is taking more than 5 meds or one that lacks indication or med that is ineffective/ duplicate therapy is an example of what?

polypharmacy

A drug interaction that involes a change in drug effect without change in concentration

A. Pharmacodynamic reaction

B. Pharmacokinetic reaction

C. Physicochemical reaction

D. Swiss cheese reaction

Pharmacodynamic reaction

Which of the following is commonly seen immune reaction that involves IgE, requires exposure to drug/ similar cross reactive drugs, or occurs 1 h or exposure to the drug and may result in prophylaxis?

Type 1, 2, 3, or 4

type 1

Drug reaction common, not mediated by antibiotics, involves expansion of t cells, takes time to and includes delayed type?

Type 1, 2, 3, or 4

type 4

Which type of toxidrome involves signs/ Sx of confusion, sinus tach, dilated pupils, dryness of skin, urinary retention, absent bowel sounds, fever?

anticholinergic

What is the definition of immunosenescence?

Decline in immune function with age

4 factor PCC and vit K are used to reverse what?

A. Warfarin

B. Apixaban

C. Praxada

Warfarin

Factor 8 inhibitor bypassing agent (FEIBA) may be used as a reversal agent for which ?

A. DOACS

B. Opioids agonist

C. Iron overload

D. Benzos

DOACs

Administration of oral iron very other day instead of daily has been shown to result in which effects

A. Increased GI effects

B. Increased iron absorption

C. Increased drug interactions

D. Reduced thromboembolic effects

Increased iron absorption

What is total dose of IV iron given for treatment for iron def anemia?

250mg

500mg

1000 mg

5000mg

1000 mg (1g )

Which drug reaction is related to pharm property of the drug such as diarrhea with antibiotic use?

Type A

Type B

Type C

Type D

type A

Adjuvants are added to vaccines for which of the following reasons?

A. Reduce hypersensitivity

B. Improve immune response to vaccine

C. As preservatives

D. To prolong the action of the vaccine effects

Improve immune response to vaccine

Which is TRUE for the diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccines?

A. Upper case letters denote full strength

B. Lower case letters denote reduced doses for diphtheria and pertussis

C. The "a" meaning the pertussis component contains only a part of pertussis organism

D. ALL of above

all of the above

Treatment of acute pain in a patient of Bup/Naloxone 8/2 for OUD includes all except

A. Continuer bup/ naloxone and initiate short acting opioid

B. Increase dose of bup/ naloxone

C. Continue once daily use without further meds

D. Switch to methadone

Continue once daily use without further meds

Which of the following is true regarding a "best possible medication history" and medication reconciliation?

A. they result in a patient medication list closest to actuality

B. they should be obtained at every transition of care

C. asking probing questions of a patient can improve accuracy of them

D. all of the above

all of the above

All of the following should be considered for deprescribing in geriatric patient except

A. removing drugs that do not have an indication

B. removing drugs that are potentially inappropriate

C. removing drugs that require lab work

D. removing drugs that lack therapeutic efficacy

removing drugs that require lab work

Which of the following types of vaccines should be avoided in immunodeficiency states?

A. live attenuated

B. inactivated

C. conjugate

D. recombinant

live attenuated

The beers list is a list of medications that should generally be avoided in which of the following

A. pediatric pts

B. elderly

C. immunocompromised

elderly

Which of the following statements is false in regards to drug metabolism?

A. cytochrome P 450 enzyme system is involved with the majority of drug metabolism

B. genetic differences make some individuals poor metabolizers and others ultra rapid metabolizers

C. metabolism of a drug results in a metabolite that always has less activity than the parent drug

D. if drug A induces the metabolism of drug B, this could lead to lower blood levels of drug B

metabolism of a drug results in a metabolite that always has less activity than the parent drug

which physiologic compound is responsible for regulation of iron metabolism and distribution?

A. erythropoietin

B. hemoglobin

C. hepcidin

D. myoglobin

hepcidin

MT is a 20yo female presenting to her PCP with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding, fatigue, reduced exercise tolerance, and dizziness. She is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia secondary to chronic blood loss. Which lab findings would be consistent with this diagnosis?

A.↑ ferritin, ↑ transferrin, ↓ H/H, normal MCV

B. ↓ ferritin, ↑ transferrin, ↓ H/H, ↓MCV

C. ↓ ferritin, ↓transferrin, ↓ H/H, ↓ MCV

D. ↑ ferritin, normal transferrin, ↑ H/H, ↓ MCV

B. ↓ ferritin, ↑ transferrin, ↓ H/H, ↓MCV

PW is a 75kh, 30 yo male with PMHx significant for crohn's, currently treated with vedolizumab every 8 weeks. He presented to his PCP for increased fatigue and upon further eval is found to have iron deficiency anemia. He would prefer an iron replacement therapy that is less frequent dosing for convenience. what would you recommend?

A. ferrous sulfate 325 mg orally twice daily for 6 months

B. iron dextran 1000mg IV for 1 dose

C. iron isomaltoside 1000 mg IV for one dose

D. iron sucrose 300 mg IV for 3 doses

C. iron isomaltoside 1000 mg IV for one dose

PT is a 50 yo female requiring iron replacement for iron deficiency anemia. Her provider suggested IV iron due to its rapid response and better tolerability. Due to a lack of insurance, the cost associated with parenteral therapy is prohibitive and has requested oral replacement. She suffers from mixed IBS and would prefer to limit GI side effects if possible. Which oral iron product is most likely to have fewer GI side effects for PT?

A. ferrous gluconate

B. ferrous sulfate

C. ferrous fumarate

D. polysaccharide iron complex

ferrous gluconate

Which of the following is a typical dose of Amlodipine?

10 mg once daily

10 mg twice daily

10 mg three times daily

20 mg once daily

10mg QD

The SARS-CoV2 vaccine is what type of vaccine?

A. modified mRNA vaccine

B. live attenuated

C. toxoid

D. whole killed organism

modified mRNA vaccine

Which of the following drug overdoses is treated with calcium, glucagon, and high dose insulin?

A. acetaminophen

B. benzos

C. ca ch blockers

D. local anesthetics

ca ch blockers

Which of the following is the drug of choice for Methicillin Resistant Staph Aureus (MRSA) infections in hospitalized patients?

A. Cefazolin (Kefzol)

B. Vancomycin

C. Fluconazole (Diflucan)

D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

vanco

Benzoyl Peroxide (Clearasil) and Isotretinoin (Accutane) are agents used in the treatment of which of the following?

A. acne

B. psoriasis

C. lice

D. scabies

acne

Pharmacogenomics involves which of the following?

A. to predict a person's response to a medication (ex: responder's vs nonresponders to a medication)

B. to determine patients likely to experience adverse events of a medication

C. to determine the optimal drug dose

D. all of the above

all of the above

From which vehicle is the most corticosteroid absorbed?

A. Lotion

B. Cream

C. Ointment

D. Powder

ointment

Which of the following is the first line treatment for atopic dermatitis?

A. Topical corticosteroids

B. Dupilumab (Dupixent)

C. Phototherapy

D. Oral Cyclosporine (Gengraf, Neoral)

topical corticosteroids

Which of the following is a topical analgesic derived from chili peppers?

A. Calamine lotion

B. Coal tar ointment

C. Capsaicin (Zostrix)

D. Hydrocortisone 1% cream

Capsaicin (Zostrix)

Which of the following is first line treatment for scabies?

A. Permethrin cream

B. Albendazole (Albenza) tablets

C. Spinosad (Natroba) topical suspension

D.Metronidazole (Flagyl) cream

permethrin

Which of the following agents may be administered by injection to lower blood pressure during hypertensive emergencies/urgencies?

A. Aspirin

B. Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

C. Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)

D. Hydralazine (Apresoline)

Hydralazine (Apresoline)

Which of the following is a Beta-Blocking agent that has both B1 and B2 antagonist effects as well as alpha-1 blocking effects?

A. Carvedilol (Coreg)

B. Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol XL)

C. Valsaratan (Diovan)

D. Propranolol (Inderal)

carvedilol

Lisinopril may cause which of the following?

A. Cough

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Angioedema

D. All of the above

all of the above

Which of the following agents is usually the drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis?

A. Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn)

B. Cefazolin (Kefzol)

C. Oritavancin (Orbactiv)

D. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

Cefazolin (Kefzol)