Basic Science: Hematology

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Last updated 9:07 PM on 7/25/26
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116 Terms

1
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What is the migration order of plasma proteins on SPEP from fastest to slowest?

Albumin → alpha-1 → alpha-2 → beta → gamma

2
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What determines migration speed on protein electrophoresis — size or charge?

Net electrical charge (not size/weight)

3
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Why does albumin migrate fastest on SPEP?

It has a strong negative charge, pulling it hardest toward the anode

4
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Why do gamma globulins migrate slowest on SPEP?

They're a heterogeneous population with weak/variable net charge

5
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What special stain reveals the reticular mesh pattern in reticulocytes?

Supravital stain (e.g., new methylene blue) — NOT routine Wright-Giemsa

6
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Why do reticulocytes show a mesh/reticular pattern on supravital stain?

Residual ribosomal RNA precipitates into that pattern

7
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How long do reticulocytes circulate before full maturation, and what is total RBC lifespan?

~1 day circulating (included in, not added to) a total ~120 day RBC lifespan

8
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Why is reticulocyte count preferred over RBC count to assess current marrow activity?

Retic count reflects real-time output (last ~24h); RBC count is an accumulated total that lags behind

9
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What does a high reticulocyte count with anemia indicate?

Marrow is healthy and compensating for peripheral RBC destruction/loss

10
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What does a low/normal reticulocyte count with anemia indicate?

A bone marrow production problem

11
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What cell types arise from a myeloid stem cell?

RBCs, platelets, granulocytes (neutrophil/eosinophil/basophil), monocytes

12
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What cell types arise from a lymphoid stem cell?

T cells, B cells, NK cells

13
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What organ produces erythropoietin, and what triggers its release?

Kidney; triggered by tissue hypoxia

14
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What are the kidney's three main hormone/hormone-like products?

Renin, erythropoietin (EPO), calcitriol (activated vitamin D)

15
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What factors cause a right shift of the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve?

↑Temp, ↑PCO2, ↑2,3-DPG, ↓pH (acidosis)

16
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What factors cause a left shift of the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve?

↓Temp, ↓PCO2, ↓2,3-DPG, ↑pH (alkalosis)

17
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What is the mnemonic for factors causing a right shift?

CADET, face Right! (CO2, Acid, DPG, Exercise, Temp ↑)

18
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Does a right shift promote O2 loading or unloading, and where does this occur?

Unloading; occurs at the tissues

19
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Does a left shift promote O2 loading or unloading, and where does this occur?

Loading; occurs at the lungs

20
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Mechanistically, how does ↑CO2 cause a right shift?

↑CO2 → ↑H+ → H+ binds Hgb allosterically → shape change → ↓O2 affinity

21
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Why does lower temperature increase Hgb's O2 affinity (left shift)?

Less molecular motion stabilizes the Hgb-O2 bond, so it's less likely to release O2

22
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What percentage of O2 is carried on hemoglobin vs. dissolved in plasma?

~98% on hemoglobin, ~2% dissolved

23
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Why do aged RBCs eventually rupture in capillaries?

No protein synthesis (no nucleus/ER) + limited energy (no mitochondria) → membrane stiffens, loses plasticity, can't deform to squeeze through capillaries

24
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What happens to bilirubin after RBC hemolysis?

Releases unconjugated bilirubin → liver conjugates it → excreted in bile

25
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In anemia classification, what lab value best discriminates ↑destruction from ↓production?

Reticulocyte count

26
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What is the MCV, retic count, and cause pattern for iron deficiency anemia?

↓MCV (microcytic), ↓/normal retic; chronic blood loss or poor intake

27
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What is the MCV, retic count, and cause pattern for aplastic anemia?

Normal MCV, ↓↓retic; CKD (↓EPO) or marrow failure

28
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What is the MCV, retic count, and cause pattern for megaloblastic anemia?

↑MCV (macrocytic), ↓/normal retic; B12/folate deficiency, impaired DNA synthesis

29
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What is the MCV, retic count, and cause pattern for hemolytic anemia?

Normal MCV, ↑↑retic; G6PD deficiency, sickle/thal, infection, autoimmune, mechanical

30
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Why is MCV normal in aplastic anemia despite significant anemia?

It's a quantity problem (not enough cells made), not a quality/size problem — cells made are normal size

31
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Why does megaloblastic anemia produce macrocytic (oversized) RBCs?

Impaired DNA synthesis slows nuclear division while cytoplasm keeps growing; many die in marrow (ineffective erythropoiesis)

32
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Why is MCV normal in hemolytic anemia?

The marrow builds normal RBCs; they're just destroyed prematurely elsewhere — production process itself isn't broken

33
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What is G6PD deficiency and why does it cause hemolysis?

Enzyme deficiency impairing NADPH production, leaving RBCs unable to handle oxidative stress → hemolysis with triggers (infection, sulfa drugs, fava beans)

34
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What causes primary polycythemia (polycythemia vera)?

Intrinsic marrow overactivity, often JAK2 mutation; EPO often LOW

35
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What causes appropriate secondary polycythemia?

Chronic hypoxia (COPD, high altitude) driving a genuine EPO-mediated compensatory increase

36
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What law explains why polycythemia causes sluggish blood flow/hypoxia?

Poiseuille's law (viscosity inversely related to flow) — NOT Fick's law

37
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What is the function of neutrophils, and what are their two killing mechanisms?

First responders vs. bacteria; O2-dependent (respiratory burst) and O2-independent (enzymes like lysozyme) killing

38
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What is the function of eosinophils?

Modulate allergic reactions, kill parasites

39
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What is the function of basophils?

Mast cell precursor-related, contain large basophilic granules

40
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What is the function of monocytes?

Precursor to macrophages (Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, histiocytes)

41
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What are the 3 compartments of lymphocyte development?

1) Bone marrow (progenitor) 2) Primary lymphoid tissue (thymus=T, marrow=B; lineage commitment) 3) Secondary/peripheral lymphoid tissue (nodes, spleen, MALT; antigen encounter/maturation)

42
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What causes leukopenia?

↓WBC production from marrow injury/inhibition (viral infection, immunosuppressants, radiation) → ↑infection risk

43
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What is leukemia?

Neoplastic proliferation of leukocytes; myelocytic or lymphocytic, acute or chronic

44
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What defines thrombocytopenia?

LOW platelet count (↓production or ↑destruction/consumption)

45
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What defines thrombasthenia?

NORMAL platelet count but defective platelet FUNCTION (inherited or drug-induced)

46
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What drug class intentionally induces a thrombasthenia-like state?

Antiplatelet drugs (aspirin, clopidogrel)

47
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What defines thrombocytosis and its two categories?

Excess platelets; reactive/secondary (infection, inflammation, post-splenectomy) or primary (essential thrombocythemia)

48
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What does hematocrit measure, and what raises/lowers it?

% blood volume that is RBC; ↑ in dehydration/polycythemia, ↓ in anemia/hemodilution

49
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How is MCV calculated and what does it classify?

Hct/RBC count; classifies anemia by size (micro/normo/macrocytic), NOT severity

50
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How is MCH calculated?

Hgb/RBC count

51
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What does MCHC classify?

Normochromic vs. hypochromic anemia

52
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What are the 4 steps of hemostasis in order?

1) Vasoconstriction 2) Platelet plug formation 3) Fibrin clot formation 4) Vessel repair

53
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What role does vWF play in hemostasis?

Mediates platelet adhesion to exposed collagen during platelet plug formation

54
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What causes a formed clot to contract and express serum?

Contractile proteins (actin/myosin) in platelets pulling the clot inward, like muscle contraction

55
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What triggers the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

Contact activation — exposed negatively-charged subendothelial collagen (factor XII)

56
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What triggers the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

Tissue factor (factor III) release from penetrating injury

57
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What is the intrinsic pathway factor sequence?

XII → XI → IX → VIII → converges at X

58
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What is the extrinsic pathway factor sequence?

III → VII/VIIa → converges at X

59
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What is the common pathway sequence?

Xa → prothrombin (II) → thrombin → fibrinogen (I) → fibrin

60
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What lab test evaluates the intrinsic + common pathway?

APTT

61
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What lab test evaluates the extrinsic + common pathway?

PT/INR

62
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Do the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways typically activate separately or together in real injury?

Together — both usually activate simultaneously in real vessel injury

63
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At which steps is calcium required in the coagulation cascade?

Multiple steps — generation of factor Xa AND conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

64
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What is the bus/motorcycle analogy for intrinsic vs. extrinsic pathways?

Intrinsic = slow bus (scenic route, more stops/factors); Extrinsic = fast motorcycle (shortcut)

65
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What does factor XIIIa do?

Cross-links fibrin strands, stabilizing the clot

66
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What specifically produces a D-dimer fragment?

Breakdown of cross-linked (factor XIIIa-stabilized) fibrin specifically

67
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Why is D-dimer more specific than other FDP fragments (X, Y, D, E)?

It only comes from breakdown of a truly stabilized (cross-linked) clot

68
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What does a low/negative D-dimer suggest clinically?

Reassuring — no significant clot present to be broken down (helps rule OUT DVT/PE)

69
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What does a high D-dimer suggest, and what's its limitation?

Suggests clot formation/breakdown occurred somewhere; nonspecific (elevated in pregnancy, surgery, infection, cancer, age)

70
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What is the "ash from a fire" analogy for D-dimer?

Breakdown itself isn't the danger; a LARGE amount signals a bigger-than-normal clot existed, just like lots of ash signals a bigger fire

71
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What does antithrombin III (AT-III) inhibit?

Thrombin (IIa) and factor Xa

72
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How does heparin work?

Acts as a cofactor that massively amplifies AT-III's activity (doesn't work independently)

73
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What does Protein C inactivate, and what is its cofactor?

Inactivates factors VIIIa and Va; requires Protein S as cofactor

74
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Are AT-III/heparin and Protein C/S triggered by injury, or continuously active?

Continuously active in parallel — "daily security patrol" vs. the cascade's "SWAT team" response

75
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What is fibrinolysis and what enzyme carries it out?

Breakdown of fibrin clot; plasminogen → plasmin (via tPA/urokinase)

76
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What fragments does fibrin breakdown produce?

FDPs: fragments X, Y, D, E, and D-dimer

77
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What does bleeding time test, and what's the normal range?

Platelet function (primary hemostasis); ~2-5 minutes

78
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What factors are vitamin K-dependent?

II, VII, IX, X (plus Proteins C and S)

79
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What is the mnemonic for vitamin K-dependent factors?

"1972" — factors 10, 9, 7, 2

80
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What deficiency causes Von Willebrand Disease, and what TWO defects does it cause?

vWF deficiency; causes BOTH platelet dysfunction (↑bleeding time) AND intrinsic pathway deficit (↑APTT, since vWF stabilizes factor VIII)

81
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What factor is deficient in Hemophilia A vs. Hemophilia B?

A = factor VIII; B = factor IX

82
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Why do Hemophilia A and B present almost identically?

Both only affect the intrinsic pathway (↑APTT, normal bleeding time) — factor level testing needed to distinguish

83
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What distinguishes innate from acquired immunity?

Innate = fast, non-specific, no memory (barriers, neutrophils, macrophages, NK cells, complement); Acquired = specific, has memory (T/B cells, antibodies)

84
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What are the three complement activation pathways and their triggers?

Classical (antibody-antigen complex), Alternative (spontaneous on pathogen surface, no antibody), Lectin (binds pathogen sugars)

85
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What are the functions of the complement cascade?

Opsonization, cell lysis (MAC), chemotaxis, inflammation

86
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How does cellular immunity handle intracellular pathogens like viruses?

Cytotoxic T cells directly kill infected/tumor cells

87
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How does humoral immunity handle extracellular pathogens like bacteria/toxins?

B cells differentiate into plasma cells → secrete antibodies → neutralize, opsonize, activate complement

88
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What is opsonization, and what two things can act as opsonins?

Coating a pathogen to tag it for phagocytosis; antibodies (IgG) OR complement (C3b)

89
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Which antibody class crosses the placenta?

IgG

90
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Which antibody class is made first in a primary response, and what is its structure?

IgM; pentamer

91
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Which antibody class dominates at mucosal surfaces/secretions?

IgA

92
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Which antibody class is involved in allergy/parasite defense, binding mast cells/basophils?

IgE

93
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What is the mechanism of Type I hypersensitivity, and give an example

IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation; anaphylaxis, asthma, food allergy

94
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What is the mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity, and give an example

IgG/IgM against cell-surface antigens → complement/phagocytosis; transfusion reaction

95
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What is the mechanism of Type III hypersensitivity, and give an example

Antigen-antibody immune complexes deposit in tissue; serum sickness, lupus, post-strep GN

96
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What is the mechanism of Type IV hypersensitivity, and give an example

T-cell mediated, NO antibody, delayed 24-72h; TB skin test, contact dermatitis, acute transplant rejection

97
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What is the mnemonic for the 4 hypersensitivity types?

ACID — Allergic(I), Cytotoxic(II), Immune complex(III), Delayed(IV)

98
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What hypersensitivity type is PANDAS/rheumatic fever, and why?

Type II — molecular mimicry, antibody directly targets a self-antigen resembling strep antigen

99
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What hypersensitivity type is lupus predominantly, and why?

Type III — immune complex deposition (though some Type II features occur too, e.g. autoimmune hemolytic anemia)

100
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Which hypersensitivity type is transplant hyperacute rejection?

Type II (pre-existing antibodies)