Petersons CLEP Psychology Practice Test #2

A cognitive psychologist is most likely to investigate

a) what attitudes people hold.

b) why people assist or fail to assist people who need help.

c) how babies develop emotional and social ties to their caregivers.

d) how we perceive and understand the world.

e) why people suffer from mental illness.

The correct answer is D. Cognitive psychologists emphasize the mental processes involving attention, perception, memory, and how we view the world.

A manufacturing firm in your state has been cited for environmental pollution violations and you have been hired to help this company in its efforts to stop pollution and preserve the environment. You are probably a(n)

a) forensic psychologist.

b) social psychologist.

c) developmental psychologist.

d) experimental psychologist.

e) environmental psychologist.

The correct answer is E. Environmental psychologists are interested in researching and solving ecological problems, thereby helping industries to maintain an environment which preserves the balance of nature and which enables humans and other organisms to continue to thrive.

A major difference between an experiment and naturalistic observation is that one

a) is objective and the other is not.

b) studies variables and the other does not.

c) requires ethical approval and the other does not.

d) is pure and the other is applied science.

e) manipulates variables and conditions in the situation and the other does not.

The correct answer is E. Manipulating one variable while holding all others constant is the defining feature of the experimental method, and not of a naturalistic observation.

In a psychological experiment, the control group's performance is

a) not measured.

b) compared with the performance of the experimental group.

c) a result of the independent variable.

d) compared with the general population.

e) usually affected in some way by the dependent variable.

The correct answer is B. The purpose of having a control group is to provide a baseline for comparison. In other words, how would participants in an experiment have performed if they had not been exposed to the experimental condition?

On a trial basis, State College admitted 300 students from the lowest third of their high school graduation class. They were randomly divided into three groups. Group A received extensive training in study habits, group B received motivational lectures, and group C received no special treatment. At the end of the year, the average grades of the groups were compared. The dependent variable was

a) the random assignment of groups.

b) the type of treatment received.

c) the rank in high school graduation class.

d) the average grade of each group.

e) each student's individual grade point average.

The correct answer is D. The dependent variable is the outcome variable. It occurs as a result of the experimental condition. In this case, the dependent variable is the average grade of the three different groups, compared against each other.

The most prominent of the early American psychologists was

a) Carl Rogers. Incorrect ResponseSelected

b) Sigmund Freud.

c) William James.

d) Sir Francis Galton.

e) Wilhelm Wundt.

The correct answer is C. James studied introspection in the late 1800s. Freud, Galton and Wundt were all Europeans. Rogers was a twentieth-century psychologist.

"Psychology is the study of the relationship between events, or stimuli, in the environment and the responses they produce from an organism." This statement is MOST likely to be made by a

a) structuralist.

b) cognitive psychologist.

c) functionalist.

d) behaviorist.

e) Gestalt psychologist.

The correct answer is D. Behaviorism is the psychological study of overt behavior, and the relationship between behavior and its consequences. Behaviorists focus on the organism's environment and its effect on behavior, not on mental processes.

Heredity is to _____ as environment is to ______.

a) nature; nurture

b) nurture; genetics

c) nurture; nature

d) experience; nature

e) experience; genetics

The correct answer is A. Heredity refers to our genetic background (natur

e) while environment refers to our social/environmental experiences (nurtur

e).

Which historical figure would have been MORE sympathetic with the nurture rather than the nature position?

a) John Watson

b) Sir Francis Galton

c) William James

d) Karen Horney

e) Sigmund Freud

The correct answer is A. Watson was a radical behaviorist. He was interested in the effect of the environment on the individual, and did not measure internal events.

The myelin sheath serves the function of

a) providing nutrients to the cell.

b) protecting the axon of a nerve cell.

c) stimulating hormone production.

d) eliminating the need for synapses.

e) increasing the speed at which nerve impulses travel. 0

The correct answer is E. Myelinated axons allow the electrical signals within the cell to travel faster by insulating them.

At the synapse

a) a microscopic distance separates neurons.

b) the ends of the two neurons join together.

c) neurons connect to each other.

d) all action is electrical.

e) all neurotransmission is halted.

The correct answer is A. The synaptic gap is one one-millionth of an inch wide and separates neurons. Neurons send signals across the synaptic gap by releasing neurotransmitters.

Messages are carried from the sense organs to the brain by

a) efferent neurons.

b) afferent neurons.

c) microneurons.

d) operant neurons.

e) connecting neurons.

The correct answer is B. Afferent neurons (sensory neurons) bring information from the senses to the brain. Efferent (or motor) neurons originate in the brain and send messages out to the body.

Renee has been in an automobile accident which caused severe brain damage. Her doctors may tell her family all of the following EXCEPT

a) the brain is able to reorganize and shift functions.

b) psychological and physical functions may be critically affected.

c) damage to the brain is lasting.

d) children are better able to compensate for brain damage than adults are.

e) brain cells have the ability to regenerate.

The correct answer is E. Although the brain has a remarkable ability to partially compensate for damage, brain cells themselves do not regenerate.

James is sound asleep when the sound of a creaky floorboard startles him awake to find a burglar in his home. Which part of the brain was responsible for waking him up?

a) Hypothalamus

b) Amygdala

c) Cerebellum

d) Frontal lobe

e) Reticular activating system

The correct answer is E. The reticular activating system monitors alertness and determines which sensory messages are important and which are not. Messages are then passed on to the thalamus, which controls which parts of the brain receive which messages.

The actions that organisms take in response to anger or fear are strongly influenced by the brain structure called the

a) amygdala.

b) corpus callosum.

c) hippocampus.

d) association cortex.

e) pons.

The correct answer is A. The amygdala regulates aggression and fear. The amygdala is part of the limbic system, which is the emotional center of the brain.

Stimulation of salivary glands and digestion are functions of the

a) sympathetic nervous system.

b) central nervous system.

c) peripheral nervous system.

d) hypothalamus.

e) parasympathetic nervous system.

The correct answer is E. The parasympathetic system calms the body back down, slows heartbeat, reduces blood pressure, and brings digestion back "on-line." Digestion is taken "off-line" during times of stress or fear by the sympathetic system, which arouses the body.

If you are like most people, the

a) right hemisphere of your brain is dominant.

b) left hemisphere of your brain is dominant.

c) left hemisphere of your brain plays no role in understanding language.

d) right and left hemispheres of the brain perform completely separate functions without much interaction.

e) right and left hemisphere perform identical functions.

The correct answer is B. In most people the left hemisphere is dominant. Since the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body, this also explains why most people are right-hand dominant.

Which of the following statements about genetics is CORRECT?

a) In humans, genes cause specific behaviors.

b) We have 85% of our genes in common with chimpanzees.

c) Most physical traits represent the averaging of one dominant and one recessive gene.

d) According to evolutionary theory, individuals who are more successful at surviving are more likely to pass on their genes.

e) Humans have about 5,000 different genes.

The correct answer is D. According to evolutionary theory, genes have become more specialized because they have given us an advantage in surviving and adapting. Those who adapted more successfully lived longer and passed on their "successful" genes.

The observation that the difference threshold is a fixed percentage of the original stimulus is known as

a) Yanek's law.

b) Wundt's law.

c) Weber's law.

d) Young-Helmholtz's law.

e) Fechner's law.

The correct answer is C. Weber's law states that the difference threshold is a fixed percentage of the original stimulus.

The lens of the eye focuses by

a) enlarging.

b) retracting.

c) changing shape.

d) moving forward or backward.

e) admitting more light into the eye. 0

The correct answer is C. Changing shape allows the lens to focus images on the retina. A camera lens changes focus by moving backwards or forwards; the lens of the eye remains stationary but changes shape instead.

Sound waves entering the ear cause vibrations of the

a) outer ear.

b) auditory canal.

c) semicircular canals.

d) eardrum.

e) cochlea

The correct answer is D. The eardrum is the membrane between the outer ear and the middle ear. When it vibrates, it passes the message to the middle ear.

Jordan is a chef. He prides himself on his discriminatory taste. All of the following are primary taste sensations which Jordan can distinguish EXCEPT

a) salty.

b) bitter.

c) sweet.

d) sour.

e) spicy.

The correct answer is E. The four primary taste sensations are sweet, sour, salty, and bitter.

As Mr. Ross walks to his office building in the city, he sees dozens of people, hears the sounds of traffic and voices, and smells the food from a nearby restaurant. Mr. Ross will sort out these stimuli with a process called

a) convergence.

b) form perception.

c) disparity.

d) selection.

e) perception

The correct answer is D. Selection is the ability to pay attention to only some of the stimuli that bombard our sense organs.

Typically, we do not believe that airplanes shrink as they take off and soar away into the sky or that they become larger as they land and taxi up to the terminal. Our rejection of this belief is based on the phenomenon known as

a) proximity

b) interposition.

c) linear perspective.

d) perceptual constancy.

e) global processing.

The correct answer is D. Perceptual constancy allows us to continue to see the world as stable and consistent, despite changes in the way images are projected to the retina.

A prototype (or schem

a) of a giraffe would be a(n)

a) innate image of what a giraffe looks like.

b) list of giraffe features.

c) photo of a particular giraffe.

d) idea of how a giraffe feeds.

e) generalized mental model of a giraffe.

The correct answer is E. A prototype is a generalized picture or model on which a concept or perception is based. A prototype is a best example of a schema.

EEG recordings show that the brainwaves that are MOST typical of the deepest stage of sleep are those associated with

a) alpha sleep.

b) beta sleep.

c) gamma sleep.

d) delta sleep.

e) REM sleep

The correct answer is D. Delta sleep, also known as stage 4 sleep, is the deepest stage of sleep. On an EEG, delta waves show up as large, slow brainwaves.

Dream or REM sleep has also been called

a) delta sleep.

b) paradoxical sleep.

c) alpha sleep.

d) sleep apnea.

e) stage 1 sleep.

The correct answer is B. REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep because brainwave patterns are similar to wakefulness, even though the person is asleep.

During the last hours of a night's sleep

a) REM periods are longer.

b) delta periods are longer.

c) sleep is deeper.

d) body temperature is lower.

e) our sexual arousal level is higher.

The correct answer is A. As the night progresses, periods of REM sleep increase and periods of deep sleep (delta/stage 4 sleep) decrease.

When individuals require increasingly large doses of alcohol or a drug to produce the desired effect, they have developed

a) physical dependence.

b) withdrawal symptoms.

c) psychological dependence.

d) addiction.

e) tolerance.

The correct answer is E. A person has developed tolerance to a substance when increasing amounts of the substance are required to produce the effect that was once generated by a lower dosage.

Narcotics are also known as

a) barbiturates.

b) tranquillizers.

c) stimulants.

d) opiates.

e) hallucinogens. 0

The correct answer is D. Narcotics are also known as opiates, which serve as pain killers.

Barbiturates are to _______ as tranquillizers are to ________.

a) sleep; anxiety

b) anxiety; sleep

c) sleep; euphoria

d) euphoria; sleep

e) anxiety; euphoria

The correct answer is A. Barbiturates and tranquillizers are both central nervous system depressants. Barbiturates are "sleeping pills" and tranquillizers relax a person and reduce anxiety.

Irrational fears in humans, such as claustrophobia, MOST often result from

a) brain damage.

b) classical conditioning.

c) instrumental conditioning.

d) inheritance.

e) observing one's parents.

The correct answer is B. Although some phobias probably reflect a genetic predisposition, phobias often arise because a naturally frightening or unpleasant stimulus (e.g., pain) comes to be associated with a previously neutral stimulus (e.g., a be

e) and the fear may be then generalized (e.g., to all insects). In the case of claustrophobia, a feeling of discomfort or fear in a small space (e.g., a child getting shut in a closet) becomes generalized to all closed-in spaces. This is an example of classical conditioning.

The unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's experiment was the

a) tone.

b) salivation.

c) food.

d) bell.

e) light.

The correct answer is C. An unconditioned stimulus is something to which the organism automatically responds. In this experiment, it was food which initially caused the dog to salivate.

If a previously extinguished response reappears, the phenomenon is referred to as

a) secondary learning.

b) extinction.

c) an unconditioned response.

d) spontaneous recovery.

e) latent learning.

The correct answer is D. Sometimes a response that is no longer occurring—because it is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus (in classical conditioning) or no longer rewarded (in operant conditioning)—will suddenly reappear for no specific reason. This is known as spontaneous recovery.

In his experiment with a boy named Albert, John Watson paired Albert's touching of a white rat with

a) a toy bunny.

b) the smell of food.

c) a bell.

d) a man dressed like Santa Claus.

e) a loud noise.

The correct answer is E. In this experiment, the loud noise was the unconditioned stimulus, and the rat became the conditioned stimulus.

Operant conditioning requires

a) reinforcing the desired behavior.

b) learning through observation.

c) pairing a conditioned and an unconditioned stimulus.

d) pairing a conditioned stimulus and a conditioned response.

e) punishing a trial-and-error behavior.

The correct answer is A. In operant conditioning, reinforcements (rewards) and punishments determine how frequently a behavior will be chosen by an organism.

Mrs. Sanchez repeatedly tells her teenage son to hang up his clothes instead of leaving them on the floor. Her son complains that she is nagging. Mrs. Sanchez says, "Hang up your clothes and I won't nag." Mrs. Sanchez is using

a) punishment.

b) negative reinforcement.

c) negative punishment.

d) conditioned positive reinforcement.

e) aversive positive reinforcement.

The correct answer is B. Negative reinforcement increases a behavior (room-cleaning) by removing an undesirable outcome/stimulus (nagging). Negative reinforcement is NOT punishment.

Behavior will be MOST resistant to extinction when _____ reinforcement has been used.

a) negative

b) positive

c) continuous

d) interval

e) partial

The correct answer is E. If a reward is predictable (e.g., every 10 minutes, or every 10 behaviors) but does not occur, the organism will give up quickly. In partial (intermittent) reinforcement, the reward is unpredictable. Since the organism knows that a reward will come eventually, it continues the behavior in order to get the reward.

What schedule of reinforcement would be in effect when a salesman is paid $500.00 for every three new accounts he sells?

a) Fixed ratio

b) Fixed interval

c) Variable ratio

d) Variable interval

e) Differential ratio

The correct answer is A. Schedules that are fixed are predictable (every third sal

e). Schedules that reward after a specified number of behaviors are called ratios. Therefore, the salesman is on a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement.

Of the following, the most common cause of learned helplessness is

a) lack of interest.

b) punishment.

c) inconsistent reinforcement.

d) classical conditioning.

e) failure. 0

The correct answer is E. In learned helplessness, people learn that there is no relationship between their actions and their outcomes. All actions produce the same (negativ

e) results—failure. Therefore, the person—or other organisms—stops trying.

According to Bandura's theory, children who see a film involving adult aggression are MOST likely to

a) fear adults who later enter the room.

b) dislike aggression.

c) imitate the aggressive acts.

d) ignore the aggressive behavior and attend to the non-aggressive behavior.

e) become criminals as adults.

The correct answer is C. Bandura's theory is called observational learning, or modeling. The film was part of one of his experiments. The children imitated the adult model's aggression toward a blow-up doll.

Fido hears the can opener and runs toward the kitchen. When he gets there, he finds that the interior kitchen door is closed, so he runs out his dog door and goes to the back door, off the kitchen. Fido's behavior is most closely related to

a) insight learning.

b) observational learning.

c) modeling.

d) an unconditioned response.

e) cognitive maps.

The correct answer is E. A cognitive map is an organism's mental representation of physical space. We develop cognitive maps as a result of moving around in our environment.

Most people can retain about how many items in short-term memory?

a) 3 to 5

b) 5 to 9

c) 10 to 15

d) 15 to 20

e) 20 to 30

The correct answer is B. The average number of items that can be retained in short-term memory is seven, plus or minus two.

It has been estimated that the number of individual items stored in adult long-term memory is probably

a) a few thousand.

b) about a hundred thousand.

c) about one million.

d) about 10 million.

e) virtually unlimited.

The correct answer is E. The brain's ability to store information is virtually unlimited.

The individual who used nonsense syllables in early experimental studies of forgetting is

a) Abraham Maslow.

b) Sigmund Freud.

c) Robert Sternberg.

d) George Miller.

e) Herman Ebbinghaus.

The correct answer is E. Ebbinghaus used nonsense syllables (meaningless words) to study memory and retention. From this, he developed the "curve of forgetting."

If the police are questioning witnesses to a robbery, which question is MOST likely to result in an accurate description of the robber?

a) Was the robber wearing a red baseball cap?

b) Was the robber limping just slightly?

c) How tall was the robber?

d) Was the robber white?

e) Was the robber a teenager?

The correct answer is C.

s should not "lead" a witness. People can easily incorporate after-the-fact information into existing memories without even being aware that they are doing so.

The ability to deal with new problems that require specialized skills such as perception and memory span is called

a) fluid intelligence.

b) crystallized intelligence.

c) analytical intelligence.

d) functional intelligence.

e) creative intelligence.

The correct answer is A. Younger people score higher in fluid intelligence (the ability to use knowledge and problem solving to deal with differing and novel situations), while older people score higher in crystallized intelligence (the ability to use accumulated knowledge toward activities such as reading).

Benjamin Whorf suggested that

a) language and perception are unrelated.

b) language is tailored to human thinking.

c) all humans perceive and describe the world in much the same way.

d) perception is not possible without language.

e) language shapes our view of the world.

The correct answer is E. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis states that the words we use (or hear) influence the way we think.

"All planets are square. Mars is round. Therefore, Mars is not a planet." This is an example of

a) illogical thinking.

b) functional fixedness.

c) a faulty premise.

d) elliptical thinking.

e) low intelligence.

The correct answer is C. A premise is a basic belief that is accepted and used in thinking. It is a starting point for logic. In this case, the premise is simply not true.

It has been found that "overlearning" material usually results in

a) greater retention of the material.

b) confusing terms with one another.

c) reduced retention of the material.

d) no change in retention of the material.

e) total forgetting of the material. 0

The correct answer is A. Overlearning is continuing to learn and process information even when a person thinks he or she knows the material thoroughly. Overlearning increases familiarity and recall.

Most of the changes in the body that take place during times of high emotion are controlled by the

a) parasympathetic system.

b) thyroid gland.

c) right hemisphere of the brain.

d) autonomic nervous system.

e) cerebral cortex.

The correct answer is D. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulates "automatic" functions in the body. The sympathetic division of the ANS arouses the body during stress or strong emotions. The parasympathetic division calms the body after the stress is over.

The James-Lange theory of emotion says that emotions

a) are determined by the hypothalamus.

b) are determined entirely by cognitive processes.

c) are a result of environmental influences.

d) result from about our physiological state.

e) are a result of inborn fears and instincts.

The correct answer is D. The James-Lange theory states that different emotions have unique patterns of physiological arousal that are understood by the cerebral cortex, i.e., particular biological states are related to specific emotions.

The innate physiological mechanism that keeps an individual's body weight at a genetically pre-programmed level is known as the

a) homeostatic trigger.

b) hunger median.

c) set point.

d) metabolic master.

e) equilibrium.

The correct answer is C. Set point theory says that we have a genetically pre-programmed weight that the body attempts to maintain by either speeding up or slowing down metabolism.

Naturally produced pain-killers that are produced by the brain and that shield the body from pain and elevate feelings of pleasure are called

a) opiates.

b) prostaglandins.

c) endorphins.

d) aphrodisiacs.

e) steroids.

The correct answer is C. Endorphins are neurotransmitters. "Endorphins" is short for endogenous (from within) morphine (pain killer). They are naturally occurring opiates.

Compared to the sexual behavior of lower animal forms, human sexual behavior is more influenced by

a) hormones.

b) learning.

c) pheromones.

d) physiology.

e) natural selection.

The correct answer is B. Cognition (and thus learning) is a major contributor to human sexual behavior.

The refractory period of the human sexual response cycle refers to

a) increasing sexual tension.

b) an accumulation of blood in the genital area.

c) the moment just before orgasm where the individual feels that orgasm is imminent.

d) a period after orgasm when men cannot become sexually aroused again.

e) a period after orgasm when neither men nor women can become sexually aroused again.

The correct answer is D. After an orgasm, males cannot achieve another erection immediately. This is known as the refractory period.

The BEST predictor of homosexuality in adulthood is the existence of

a) a weak, unavailable father and a strong, authoritarian mother.

b) early pleasurable experiences associated with homosexual behavior.

c) homosexual feelings prior to any sexual activities.

d) an overbearing, dominant mother.

e) early unpleasurable dating experiences with members of the opposite sex.

The correct answer is C. Research into the social contributions of homosexuality has not identified any consistent social patterns that are related to the development of sexual orientation. It is likely that a homosexual orientation is a result of a complex interaction of a number of factors, including having a biological predisposition.

Paired chromosomes are always similar in structure EXCEPT for the pair that determines a child's

a) eye color.

b) length of bones.

c) sex.

d) irritability level.

e) rate of growth.

The correct answer is C. The first 22 pairs of chromosomes have matched pairs. The twenty-third pair has an X and a Y and determines biological sex.

The rooting response is related to an infant's need for

a) affection.

b) warmth.

c) security.

d) food.

e) avoidance of pain.

The correct answer is D. In the rooting response, touching an infant's cheek will cause the infant to turn in the direction of the touch. In the case of being held to breast feed, this turns the infant toward the source of milk.

Little Andrew has developed a concept that large, four-legged creatures are "horses." Upon seeing a cow, Andrew calls it a horse. His mother says to him, "Andrew, that's not a horse, that's a cow." Andrew's mother is trying to get him to engage in

a) concrete operations.

b) formal operations.

c) conservation.

d) accommodation.

e) assimilation.

The correct answer is D. Accommodation involves changing or adjusting an existing schema in the face of contradictory observations. In contrast, assimilation allows the existing schema to expand and grow. In this case "cow" requires an accommodation, while "pony" can be incorporated into the existing schema.

Harry Harlow's experiments with surrogate mothers showed that

a) attachment in monkeys was not simply a matter of which surrogate fed the infant monkey.

b) infant monkeys would cling to a soft surrogate when hungry.

c) infant monkeys would spend the most time clinging to the surrogate that fed them.

d) infant monkeys would cling to either surrogate when scared.

e) attachment in monkeys is different than in humans.

The correct answer is A. In Harlow's famous experiment, monkeys were found to cling to the terry-cloth surrogate mother, even if it was the less soft, wire surrogate mother that fed them. The tendency to form secure attachment was stronger than the desire to be fed.

The first menstrual period for a female is called

a) menopause.

b) menarche.

c) puberty.

d) anarchy.

e) the climacteric.

The correct answer is B. The first menstrual period for a female, at puberty, is called menarche.

Consider the moral dilemma faced by a husband who is trying to decide whether to steal a drug he cannot afford but which is the only treatment that will save his wife's life. If you say the husband shouldn't steal the drug because he will be punished for his actions, you are showing moral reasoning at the

a) preconventional level.

b) conventional level.

c) postconventional level.

d) transconventional level.

e) metaconventional level.

The correct answer is A. At the preconventional level, the individual is concerned with getting rewards and avoiding punishment.

Which type of parents are the MOST likely to have children who do better in high school?

a) Authoritative

b) Authoritarian

c) Permissive

d) Punitive

e) Indulgent

The correct answer is A. Authoritative parenting encourages children to be independent but still places limits and controls on their behavior. Children of authoritative parents tend to be socially competent and self-reliant.

A Freudian defense mechanism is BEST described as an attempt by the

a) ego to lessen anxiety by keeping conflicts out of awareness.

b) collective unconscious to access ancestral memories.

c) id to avoid conflict by simply doing whatever comes naturally.

d) superego to create guilt by reminding the person about morality.

e) total personality to coordinate the actions of the id, ego, and superego.

The correct answer is A. The ego uses defense mechanisms to prevent unacceptable thoughts from entering consciousness and causing anxiety.

Id is to _____ as ego is to ______.

a) pleasure; reality

b) reality; pleasure

c) reality; morality

d) pleasure; morality

e) morality; reality

The correct answer is A. The id operates on the pleasure principle, and the ego operates on the reality principle. The superego is guided by morality.

The correct order of Sigmund Freud's stages of psychosexual development is

a) anal, phallic, oral, genital, latency.

b) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital.

c) genital, latency, phallic, oral, anal.

d) oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital.

e) anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency.

The correct answer is B. The correct order of Freud's psychosexual stages is: oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital.

Carl Jung's notion that every human being possesses a knowledge of humanity's fears and of common past experiences is called the

a) collective unconsciousness.

b) personal unconsciousness.

c) genotype.

d) primary instinct.

e) thanatos.

The correct answer is A. Jung believed that the collective unconsciousness was passed down in the same way that physical attributes are passed from generation to generation.

Basic anxiety—the feeling of being isolated and helpless in a potentially hostile world—was important to the theory of

a) Erik Erikson.

b) Alfred Adler.

c) Karen Horney.

d) Carl Rogers.

e) Hans Eysenck.

The correct answer is C. Karen Horney believed that the need for security, not sexuality, was a prime motive for humans. Certain behaviors are seen as a way to cope with basic anxiety.

"If we knew a person's entire reinforcement history, we could accurately predict his behavior." This statement would MOST likely have been made by

a) Carl Jung.

b) Carl Rogers.

c) Hans Eysenck.

d) B. F. Skinner.

e) Abraham Maslow. 0

The correct answer is D. Skinner's theory of operant conditioning emphasized that behaviors are performed in order to maximize rewards and avoid punishments.

The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is an example of which of the following types of personality tests?

a) Objective

b) Projective

c) Behavior assessment

d) Achievement

e) Situational

The correct answer is A. The MMPI, the most widely used personality test composed of a standard number of questions and standardized norms for scoring, is considered to be an objective form of of personality assessment.

Which of the following statements about stress is CORRECT?

a) Stressful situations are the same for everyone.

b) The meaning of the stress is not important.

c) Infants and young children generally do not experience stress.

d) What one person perceives to be stressful may not be to another.

e) Major stressors can have a negative impact on health, but minor hassles do not.

The correct answer is D. The perception of whether or not something is stressful varies from person to person. Some things are seen by one person as a stressor and by another person as a challenge.

The order in which the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) occur is

a) alarm, exhaustion, and resistance.

b) alarm, resistance, and adaptation.

c) alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

d) exhaustion, alarm, and resistance.

e) resistance, exhaustion, and alarm.

The correct answer is C. The order of the GAS—the physiological reaction to stress—is alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

Which of the following is MOST likely to have a positive influence on an individual's ability to cope with a stressful event?

a) An external locus of control

b) An inability to control the situation

c) Good physical fitness

d) High levels of blood cortisols

e) A low tolerance for frustration

The correct answer is C. Physical fitness can provide a buffering effect against stress.

The chance that a person will develop schizophrenia is about _____ out of 100.

a) 1

b) 3

c) 5

d) 10

e) 15

The correct answer is A. Universally, about 1 percent of people are schizophrenic.

Depression is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

a) sleep disturbances.

b) hyperactivity.

c) poor digestion.

d) difficulty concentrating.

e) feelings of hopelessness.

The correct answer is B. People who are depressed often suffer from fatigue or loss of energy. Hyperactivity is characterized by excessive energy levels.

Depression occurs much MORE frequently among

a) children than adults.

b) women than men.

c) blacks than whites.

d) neurotics than psychotics.

e) rural inhabitants than urban dwellers.

The correct answer is B. Women are approximately 2 to 3 times more likely to be diagnosed with depression.

Individuals who are so anxious about being in a public place that they never leave home are suffering from

a) fugue.

b) claustrophobia.

c) agoraphobia.

d) generalized anxiety.

e) acrophobia.

The correct answer is C. Agoraphobia is fear of open or public places and may be motivated by a fear of having a panic attack in a public place.

Phobic disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorders are specific disorders that both fall into the broader category of

a) affective disorders.

b) dissociative disorders.

c) personality disorders.

d) somatoform disorders.

e) anxiety disorders.

The correct answer is E. Both phobic disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorders are classified as anxiety disorders.

Obsessions refer to _____, whereas compulsions refer to _____.

a) thoughts; behaviors.

b) behaviors; thoughts.

c) depression; anxiety.

d) neurotic symptoms; psychotic symptoms.

e) psychotic symptoms; neurotic symptoms. 0

The correct answer is A. Obsessions are repetitive thoughts and compulsions are repetitive and ritualistic behaviors.

The major purpose of free association in psychoanalysis is to

a) reveal important events of one's childhood.

b) uncover unconscious conflicts that may be causing anxiety.

c) establish rapport between the analyst and the patient.

d) determine whether or not the patient is experiencing catharsis.

e) allow the analyst to gauge the patient's creative capacity.

The correct answer is B. In free association, the patient is encouraged to lie back and say out loud any thought that enters his or her consciousness, in order to give the treating clinician a stronger chance of uncovering well-hidden, unconscious conflicts.

The therapeutic approach that gives emphasis to self-acceptance, personal responsibility, and the client's perspective is

a) psychoanalytic therapy.

b) behavioral therapy.

c) humanistic therapy.

d) cognitive therapy.

e) environmental therapy.

The correct answer is C. Humanistic therapists believe that the basic tendency in humans is toward self-actualization (fulfillment of potential) and that conditions of worth (judgments) often interfere with that tendency.

The most influential proponent of "person-centered therapy" has been

a) Fritz Perls

b) Aaron Beck.

c) Albert Ellis.

d) Albert Bandura.

e) Carl Rogers.

The correct answer is E. Carl Rogers coined the term "person-centered therapy."

The various behavior therapies are based on

a) a resolution of unconscious conflicts so that these will not affect our actions.

b) the role of cognition in creating mental illness.

c) the correction of faulty thinking to eliminate its effect on behavior.

d) an application of principles of learning to eliminate unwanted behaviors.

e) the reduction of symptoms by the patient's gaining insight into their causes.

The correct answer is D. Although some behavior therapies include correcting faulty thinking, some do not. What all behavior therapies share in common is an application of principles of learning to eliminate unwanted behaviors.

Family therapy is based on the belief that

a) maladaptive behavior is learned in early childhood.

b) group therapy is superior to individual therapy.

c) the family plays a key role in producing maladaptive behavior.

d) the family should determine what direction therapy takes.

e) an unresolved Oedipus complex causes most psychological problems.

The correct answer is C. Family therapy assumes that because interactions among family members are often the cause of an individual's maladaptive behavior, and because they may be symptomatic of a larger problem rooted in the dynamics of the family, the therapy should require the participation of the entire family unit.

Antipsychotic drugs are also called

a) antidepressants.

b) amphetamines.

c) minor tranquilizers.

d) major tranquilizers.

e) stimulants.

The correct answer is D. Antipsychotic drugs are also called major tranquilizers.

Community mental health centers were designed to

a) train individuals in the community to give mental health care.

b) screen mental patients to determine which patients should be hospitalized.

c) assess mental patients to determine which patients should be deinstitutionalized.

d) provide outpatient therapy for those who need some supervision but can live at home.

e) provide a residential facility for inpatient care as an alternative to mental hospitals.

The correct answer is D. Community mental health centers were designed to provide outpatient therapy for those who need some supervision but can live at home.

Eric thinks of all athletes as being strong and fast, weak in academics, and insensitive to others. This is an example of

a) discrimination.

b) an attribution.

c) negative referencing.

d) a stereotype.

e) scapegoating.

The correct answer is D. A stereotype is an attitude that disregards individual differences and holds that all members of a certain group behave in the same manner.

John is trying to persuade his listener that the schools in his state need an influx of new money. He will be better able to convince his listener if he

a) takes a position from which he stands to gain.

b) argues against his own self-interest.

c) is employed as a teacher.

d) speaks slowly and deliberately.

e) takes a position that differs markedly from the position of the audience.

The correct answer is B. People who speak against their own self-interest are often seen not only as having nothing to personally gain from their position, but also as actually having something to lose personally. Therefore, their argument seems particularly compelling and they are often highly persuasive.

When people engage in a particular behavior because an authority figure has commanded them to do it, they are displaying what is MOST accurately termed

a) group cohesiveness.

b) obedience.

c) conformity.

d) compliance.

e) cognitive dissonance. 0

The correct answer is B. Obedience is defined as compliance with an explicit order, usually from an authority figure.

Research on the bystander effect has shown that

a) curiosity causes crowds to gather at the scene of serious accidents.

b) an individual bystander is less likely to help someone if other bystanders are present.

c) an individual bystander is more likely to help someone if other bystanders are present.

d) an individual bystander will help someone only if he or she is in a good mood.

e) bystanders are often callous, uncaring, and apathetic.

The correct answer is B. When many people are present, people often fail to act because of diffusion of responsibility - everyone assumes that someone else will help. The victim's best chance for receiving help is when only one other person is present.

A graphic representation of human characteristics generally results in a

a) sine-arc curve.

b) parabola.

c) straight line.

d) normal distribution.

e) leptokurtic distribution.

The correct answer is D. In a normal distribution, or bell-shaped curve, the majority of scores fall in the middle and relatively few scores fall at each end of the curve.

A correlation coefficient is a measure of

a) cause and effect.

b) the relationship, if any, between two variables.

c) human physical characteristics.

d) the normal curve of distribution.

e) an explanation of why two things are related.

The correct answer is B. A correlation coefficient is a measure of the degree to which two variables are related.