MLT 191 UNIT 1 Exam

Biosafety levels determine:

The degree of risk for certain areas of a health care facility to exposure to infectious diseases

A laboratory technologist decided she would like to bring her lab coat home for laundering because it had too many wrinkles when it was returned by the laboratory’s laundry service. Is this practice acceptable?

No, because the laboratory is a biosafety level 2, and lab coats may not be removed

Personal protective equipment includes:

All of the above

At what point in the employment process should safety training take place ?

Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter

In safety training, employees must become familiar with all of the following except:

How to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee

Blood irradiators require all of the following safety procedures except:

That the user have a degree in radiology

Which of the following is true regarding good manufacturing practices (GMPs) ?

GMPs are legal requirements established by the Food And Drug Administration Administration

Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable record-keeping procedure?

Using dittos in columns to save time

A technologist in training noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist’s initials. Is this an acceptable procedure?

No; she should have brought the error to the technologist’s attention

Unacceptable quality control results for the anti-globulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if:

All the above

All of the following are true regarding competency testing except:

It is required only if the technologist has no experience

Which of the following organizations are involved in the regulation of blood banks ?

Food and Drug Administration

All of the following are responsibilities of the quality assurance department of a blood bank except :

Reviewing and approving training programs

The standard operating procedure is a document that:

Helps achieve consistency of results

Employee training takes place:

After hiring and following implementation of new procedures

Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are:

Continuous quality improvement plan

A facility that does not validate a refrigerator before use . What is a potential outcome ?

The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration

Select the cell involved in humoral immunity.

B lymphocytes

What process is described by opsonization ?

Binding to cells or antigens

Select the term that describes cells or tissue from genetically different individual within the same species.

Allogeneic

Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to to specific receptors.

Cytokines

Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?

Antibody bound to antigen

What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic?

Proteins

What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype?

Heavy chain

Select the immunoglobulin class produced first in the primary immune response

IgM

In a serologic test, the term "prozone" is also known as:

Antibody excess

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?

False negatives

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded?

4+

Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody’s unique class function

Constant region of the heavy chain

What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells?

Fc fragment

Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity.

Variable region

What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?

IgG

What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate-spin?

IgM

An antigen that originates from the individual is termed :

Autologous

Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response ?

Size greater than 10,000 daltons

Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the:

Spleen

An antibody identified in the transfusion service appeared to be reacting stronger following the second exposure to an antigen from a transfusion. The most likely explanation of this observation is:

All of the above

In the complement cascade, lysis of the target cell is mediated by which of the following components?

C5 to C9

In order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro, it may be necessary to adjust which of the following?

Increase the incubation time in the incubator.

Hemolysis was observed at room temperature. when testing a patient's serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient’s plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions?

Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample

Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test?

IgG

When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test?

Patient’s red cells and anti-A

A technologist added 4 drops of a 5% red cell suspension instead of the required 1 drop to a hemagglutination test. What is the potential consequence to the test results?

False-negative

Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells)

Antiglobulin test

Select the method that uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix

Gel technology

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?

Polyclonal-based

Which of the following items provides evidence for reagent red cell deterioration?

All of the above

Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are:

Polyclonal in specificity

Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in:

Vitro

Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody?

All variations of the antigen can be detected

Where are product limitations and technical considerations for each reagent located?

Product insert

Solid-phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because:

The endpoint is more clearly defined

Which of the following statements is true regarding IgG-sensitized red cells?

They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test

The gel technology method uses a concentration of red cells that is:

Lower than tube techniques

The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. How do you interpret this result?

The result is a negative reaction

Which of the following statements is true regarding high-protein anti-D reagents?

All of the above are true

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?

Unable to determine without further testing

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples?

Pooled screening cells

What specificities does polyspecific antihuman globulin contain?

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

What temperature is used for incubation in the indirect antihuman globulin test?

37* C

Why is the incubation omitted in the direct antihuman antiglobulin test?

The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo

In the solid-phase red cell adherance test, how does a negative test appear?

A buttom of cells on the bottom of the well

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as a:

2+

What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?

IgG

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?

Antigen Fy^a and Fy^b in the Duffy system

What is the purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test?

Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies

Why is the polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel?

Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies

Rouleaux is a false-positive reaction that would not likely be observed during which of the following tests?

Weak D test

A person whose red cells type as M+N+ with antisera would be:

A heterozygote

The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except:

O

In a family study, all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A,B,O, and AB. What is the most likely genotypes of the parents?

AO and BO

If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N- ?

Weaker

A father carries the Xg^a blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but to none of his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

X-linked dominant

Of the following markers used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful statistical value?

Human leukocyte antigen typing

Mitosis results in_________ chromosomes as the original

Two cells with the same number of

When does crossing over occur?

Meiosis

When an individual is group A, which of the following genetic terms applies?

Phenotype

What is an advantage of Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT) for viral marker testing?

A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected

What is the meaning of the term "autosomal"?

A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes

How is RNA different from DNA?

All of the above are true

When using the Hardy- Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be TRUE?

All of the above are true

If two traits occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. What does this fact suggest?

The genes are close together on the same chromosome.

What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-positive patient with antibodies to C, E, and K, if the frequency of C is 70%, E is 30%, and K is 10%?

2 out of 10 units

In a relationship testing, a “direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is:

Present in a child but absent in both the mother and alleged father.

In a random population, 16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait. What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait?

48%

How are most blood group systems inherited?

Autosomal codominant

The linked HLA genes on each chromosome are inherited as a:

Haplotype

In the PCR reaction, what is the term for the short pieces of single-stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified?

Primers

Which of the following clinical applications applies to molecular testing for blood group antigens?

All of the above

In a routine audit of a facilities blood collection area, the quality assurance department found that the blood bags used on that particular day had expired. What is the appropriate course of action?

~ Initiate a root cause analysis and quarantine the blood collected in the expired bags

~ Notify the FDA since the expired bags were distributed

Several units were released to a hospital by mistake before all viral marker testing was completed. What was the appropriate course of action? (Select all that apply)

~ The error is reportable, and the Food and Drug Administration must be contacted

~Call the hospital and request a quarantine of the remaining products in inventory

FDA

Ensure the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices

OSHA

Ensures safe and healthful working conditions

CDC

Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission

AABB

Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services

CAP

Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories

Root cause analysis

Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error

Recall

Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the receipts

Accuracy

Degree to which a measurement represents the true value

Validation

Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result