Patho Exam 2 Bank

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94 Terms

1
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How does aldosterone affect kidney function?

It increases reabsorption of sodium and water. 

2
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All of the following are homeostatically regulated by the renal system except

White blood cell count

3
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How does the renal system respond to cardiovascular feedback?

The kidneys increase sodium and water reabsorption when baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid arteries detect a decrease in blood pressure.

4
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How does the renal system interact with the endocrine system?

The pituitary gland releases vasopressin, stimulating the kidneys to increase water reabsorption.

5
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The presence of renin causes the release of the hormone angiotension II, which stimulates the ____ to secrete _____.

adrenal glands; aldosterone

6
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What path does filtered urine follow out of the kidney into the rest of the urinary tract?

Renal pyramids, renal calyces, renal pelvis, ureter

7
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The less water is ingested, the concentration of sodium ___ in the interstitium. Water travels down the concentration gradient ____ the cells to achieve homeostasis.

Increases; out of

8
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Which of the following statements best described how water moves within the body to maintain homeostasis?

Water moves easily through cell membranes and between the interstitium and intravascular spaces.

9
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If you were explaining kidney perfusion to a classmate you would likely make all of the following statements except;

When cells within the nephrons detect an increase in perfusion, the kidneys release renin.

10
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the fluid-electrolyte balance in the body?

When excess water is ingested, cells swell, which causes bloating.

11
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To prevent alkalosis, ____ hydrogen is secreted and ____ bicarbonate is reabsorbed, decreasing the pH level of the blood.

Less, Less

12
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If you were explaining how glomerular filtration rate is regulated, which of the following statements would you most likely make?

Angiotensin II constricts the afferent and efferent arterioles to maintain glomerular filtration rate.

13
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Sodium ions move into the interstitium via ____ to maintain the concentration gradient around the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

Active transport

14
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In the kidney, filtration occurs in the ____ and reabsorption occurs in the _____.

Glomerulus, renal tubule

15
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All of the following substances are reabsorbed back into the capillaries from the filtrate passing through the nephron except….

Creatinine

16
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The first step in generating a concentrated medulla is to ____ the ion concentration of tubular fluid in the loop of Henle’s _____ limb.

Increase, decending

17
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All of the following are functions of the kindey except

Maintaining sugar homeostasis in the blood

18
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Where in the kidney is the highest concentration gradient

The renal medulla

19
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When discussing the permeability of the collecting duct, which of the following statements would you most likely make?

More aquaporin channels in the membrane increase the permeability of the collecting ducts to water

20
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Where do kidney stones typically form?

In the renal calyces

21
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Which of the following best describes kidney stones?

Crystallized mineral or acid salt deposits that form in the urine

22
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Which of the following statements accurately compares intrinsic rental failure and post-renal failure.

Post-renal failure is typically caused by a blockage in the ureters, bladder, or urethra; intrinsic renal failure is caused by a breakdown of nephron function

23
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What causes renal colic?

Passage of large kidney stones

24
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How does acute tubular necrosis affect water and electrolyte reabsorption in the kidney?

It increases water and electrolyte reabsorption, causing decreased urine output

25
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What distinguishes the types of acute renal failure from each other?

Where the disruption of renal function occurs

26
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All of the following conditions cause pre-renal failure except

acute tubular necrosis

27
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All of the following are symptoms of acute tubular necrosis except

Blood in urine

28
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Intrinsic renal failure can occur when

diseases of the tubules disrupt normal nephron function

29
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All of the following characteristics increase the chance that a person will get kidney stones except

A history of urinary tract infections

30
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All of the following can cause acute tubular necrosis except

prolonged high blood pressure

31
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Which of the following factors increases the risk of a UTI?

A urinary tract blockage

32
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What factor is a good indicator of the severity of chronic renal failure?

Glomerular filtration rate

33
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Which of the following is a common complication of polycystic kidney disease?

hypertension

34
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If you were explaining the progression of polycystic kidney disease to a classmate, you would likely include all of the following statements except:

The cysts fill with blood, making their nephrons non-functional

35
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All of the following are reasons that UTIs are more common in females than in males except…

The longer female urethra makes it more difficult to flush bacteria out of the urinary tract

36
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Which of the following is an effect of chronic renal failure?

Vitamin D receptors in the kidney start to fail, causing decreased calcium absorption and poor bone health

37
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As chronic kidney failure worsens, the kidney’s production of ____ decreases, leading to a general decrease in ____ production.

Erythropoietin, red blood cells

38
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What structures initially develop the cysts that lead to polycystic kidney disease?

The nephron tubules

39
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All of the following statements accurately describe how cyst growth and multiplication affects renal structure except…

It enlarges the calyces

40
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Usually, a UTI starts in the ____ and moves towards the ____

Urethra, bladder

41
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All of the following are common causes of renal failure except

Excess sodium ion concentration

42
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What is the functional unit of the kidney called?

nephron

43
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The ureter has peristaltic activity that draws urine out of the kidney and into the bladder

true

44
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What determines the severity of a urinary tract obstruction? (Select all that apply)

completeness, location, and cause

45
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what are the risk factors for kidney stones?

gender, genetic predisposition, fluid intake

46
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Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a pediatric disorder involving what mechanism?

Deposition of IgA in the glomerulus

47
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How many layers are considered part of the skin

3

48
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What part of the OTPF does skin and related structure functions fall under

client factors 

49
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Select what causes chronic inflammation

The persistence of toxins of the killed microorganisms, prolonged irritation by chemical or physical irritants, the persistence of bacteria inside phagocytes, unsuccessful acute inflammatory response 

50
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what layer consists mostly of subcutaneous fat and typically above muscle tissue

hypodermis

51
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What is the most common cause of burns?

Fire/Flame

52
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Which type of hypertension is due to a stiffening/rigidity of the aorta which increases cardiac output?

Isolated systolic hypertension

53
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This condition is synonymous with irreversible damage to the heart muscle as a result of coronary artery obstruction or prolonged lack of oxygen to cardiac tissue.

Myocardial infraction

54
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A client diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF) is complaining of increased shortness of breath when lying in bed at night. Poor quality of sleep is increasing their level of fatigue and weakness during the day. What is the best recommendation?

Avoid lying flat by elevating the head of the bed or using additional pillows.

55
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What may present as a result of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply)

Aneurysm, embolism, thrombosis

56
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Arteries

Carry blood toward the heart

57
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Veins

Carry blood towards the heart

58
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Capillaries

Connect the veins and arteries

59
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Which of the following statements accurately describes the chain of events that occurs during an asthma attack

Irritation causes excess mucus production, which leads to narrowed airways and edema that decrease pulmonary ventilation

60
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If you were explaining the effects of pnemothorax to a classmate, which of the following would you msot likely say?

It decreases lung compliance and.capacity, leading to oxygen deficiency

61
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What are the usual causes of COPD?

Smoking and inhalation of pollutants

62
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Which of the following statements is true about the airways in a patient with emphysema?

The damaged airways collapse on expiration and trap air in the alveoli

63
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What is the term for the difficult, labored breathing that characterizes an asthma attack?

dyspnea

64
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During an asthma attack, the airway defenses

overreact

65
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Normally, the fluid-filled pleural cavity exerts ___ pressure on the lungs, allowing them to

negative, expand

66
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all of the following statements accurately describe the airways in a patient with chronic bronchitis except

they may not have enough mucus

67
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Which of the following is not a possible cause of pneumothorax?

inhalation of pollutants

68
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What are the two main types of COPD?

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

69
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Pneumonia is an infection of lung tissues in which fluid and blood leak into the

alveoli

70
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If you were explaining the effects of a pulmonary embolism to a classmate, you would likely say all of the following except:

It can cause bleeding in the lungs

71
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What symptom do most pneumonia patient’s experience, in addition to coughing, fever, chills, and infection?

dyspnea

72
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In a patient with pnemonia, which of the following is not likely to be caused by the swelling of capillaries?

reduced mucus production

73
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What is a possible cause of pulmonary edema?

membrane damage

74
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Pulmonary embolism typically occurs as a complication of

deep vein thrombosis

75
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____ is a condition that occurs when _____ is made worse by an immune response

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pulmonary edema

76
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What happens to the capillary membrane in a patient with ARDS

It becomes too permeable, allowing proteins, cells, and fluid to leak out.

77
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Respiratory compliance is the ability of the

lungs and alveoli to expand and contract

78
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All of the following statements accurately describe the pleural cavities except

they prevent the collapse of the alveolar cavities on expiration

79
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The respiratory centers that control the rate and depth of breathing are located in the

pons and medulla

80
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If you were explaining the role of the accessory respiratory muscles to a classmate, you would likely make all of the following statements except

The respiratory centers signal them to drive adjustments to normal ventilation

81
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All of the following statements accurately describe pCO2 except

It acts directly on the respiratory center

82
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The respiratory and ____ systems work together to maintain pulmonary ventilation and gas exchange

nervous

83
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Which of the following terms refers to increased pCO2

Hypercapnia

84
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Contraction and relaxation of the ___ drive the movement of the chest wall during normal ventilation

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

85
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What are the two main types of lung cancer?

Small cell lung cancer and non-small cell lung cancer

86
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Which of the following statements accurately describes a tumor associated with stage IIA non-small cell lung cancer?

The tumor is larger (>5cm) or it has spread to lymph nodes in the lung

87
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Tissue affected by tuberculosis infection may become _____, transforming into a cheese-like substance called caseum.

necrotic

88
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_____ are the most common sub-type of non-small cell lung cancer, and they usually form ________.

Adenocarcinomas, in the outer regions of the lung

89
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All of the following are possible results of untreated or antibiotic resistant tuberculosis except

Hodgkin’s disease

90
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Tuberculosis spreads by ____ and proliferates in ____ areas.

droplets coughed or sneezed through the air, crowded and poorly ventilated

91
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What are tubercles?

Nodules that form around immune cells

92
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In a patient with lung cancer, a carcinogen does all of the following except

create a pathogenic environment in which cilia can become malignant

93
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Which of the following accounts for about 80% of lung cancer cases?

non-small cell lung cancer

94
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If a non-small cell lung cancer has metastasized to the other lung or elsewhere in the body, it is stage

IV