med term unit 2 review

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Last updated 5:28 AM on 6/28/26
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107 Terms

1
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What are bones primarily made of?

Bony tissue, collagen, osteocytes, and calcium salts.

<p>Bony tissue, collagen, osteocytes, and calcium salts.</p>
2
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What is the primary function of the skeletal system?

To provide framework, protect internal organs, and support body movement.

<p>To provide framework, protect internal organs, and support body movement.</p>
3
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What is ossification?

The gradual replacement of cartilage by immature bone cells and calcium deposits.

4
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What are osteoblasts?

Immature osteocytes that produce bony tissue.

<p>Immature osteocytes that produce bony tissue.</p>
5
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What are osteoclasts?

Large cells that function to reabsorb or digest bone tissue.

<p>Large cells that function to reabsorb or digest bone tissue.</p>
6
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What role does calcium play in the body?

Helps with bone formation, heart contraction, and nerve impulse transmission to muscles.

<p>Helps with bone formation, heart contraction, and nerve impulse transmission to muscles.</p>
7
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What hormone does the parathyroid gland secrete?

A hormone responsible for maintaining calcium levels in the bloodstream.

<p>A hormone responsible for maintaining calcium levels in the bloodstream.</p>
8
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What hormone does the thyroid gland secrete?

A hormone that allows calcium to leave the bloodstream and enter the bones.

<p>A hormone that allows calcium to leave the bloodstream and enter the bones.</p>
9
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What is calcium phosphate?

A substance produced by osteoblastic activity that gives bone its hard quality.

10
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What is the function of Vitamin D in the body?

Necessary for calcium absorption through the lining of the small intestine into the bloodstream.

<p>Necessary for calcium absorption through the lining of the small intestine into the bloodstream.</p>
11
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How many bones are there in the human body?

206 bones.

<p>206 bones.</p>
12
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What is the epiphysis?

The end part of a long bone.

13
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What is the metaphysis?

The region of a long bone between the epiphysis and the diaphysis.

14
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What is a simple fracture?

A bone fracture without a break in the skin.

<p>A bone fracture without a break in the skin.</p>
15
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What is an open (compound) fracture?

A bone fracture where a fragment of the bone protrudes through the skin.

16
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What is osteosarcoma?

A tumor of the bone and flesh, commonly located at the end of long bones.

17
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What is osteomalacia?

Bone softening caused by a lack of Vitamin D, leading to poor calcium absorption.

18
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What is osteoporosis?

A condition characterized by a decrease in bone density, resulting in thinning and weakening of bones.

19
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What is osteomyelitis?

Inflammation of bone and bone marrow caused by infection.

20
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What is a synovial joint?

A freely movable joint, such as the hip and knee joints.

21
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What is a bursa?

A closed sac of synovial fluid located near joints to reduce friction.

22
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What do ligaments connect?

Connective tissue that connects bone to bone.

23
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What do tendons connect?

Connective tissue that connects muscles to bone.

24
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What does the term 'articul/o' refer to?

Joint.

25
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What does 'rheumat/o' refer to?

Watery flow, related to the study of joints.

26
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What is arthritis?

Inflammation of the joint; a general term for various forms of joint inflammation.

27
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What type of arthritis is characterized by chronic progressive stiffening of the spinal column?

Ankylosing spondylitis

28
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What causes Gouty Arthritis?

Inflammation and swelling of joints caused by excessive uric acid in the body

29
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What is Osteoarthritis?

A degenerative joint disease caused by loss of articular cartilage and formation of bone spurs

30
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What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?

An autoimmune disease where the synovial membrane becomes inflamed and thickened

31
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What is Arthrocentesis?

Surgical puncture to remove fluid from a joint

32
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What is Arthrography?

Process of recording a joint

33
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What is Arthroplasty?

Surgical repair of a joint

34
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What is Arthroscopy?

Visual examination of a joint

35
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What are the three types of muscles?

Striated muscles, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles

<p>Striated muscles, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles</p>
36
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What is the function of striated muscles?

Found in skeletal muscles and under voluntary control

<p>Found in skeletal muscles and under voluntary control</p>
37
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What is the function of smooth muscles?

Contract to move internal (visceral) organs and are under involuntary control

38
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What is the function of cardiac muscles?

Striated in appearance but act like smooth muscle; found only in the heart

39
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What is Flexion?

Decreasing the angle between two bones

<p>Decreasing the angle between two bones</p>
40
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What is Extension?

Increasing the angle between two bones

41
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What is Abduction?

Movement away from the midline of the body

42
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What is Adduction?

Movement towards the midline of the body

43
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What is Dorsiflexion?

Decreasing the angle of the joint; foot bends upward toward the face

44
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What is Plantar flexion?

Increases the angle of the joint; a ballerina 'en pointe'

45
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What is Supination?

Turning the palm upward toward the ceiling

46
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What is Pronation?

Turning the palm downward toward the floor

47
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What is Myasthenia Gravis?

Weakness of muscles due to failure in transmission of the nervous impulse from the nerve to the muscle cell

48
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What is Muscular Dystrophy?

Inherited disease characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of muscle fibers

49
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What are the four functions of the digestive system?

Ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination of waste material

50
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What is Mastication?

Chewing

<p>Chewing</p>
51
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What is Deglutition?

Swallowing

52
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What is the function of the pharynx?

Passageway for air and food

<p>Passageway for air and food</p>
53
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What is the role of the epiglottis?

Flap of tissue covering the trachea to prevent food from entering it during swallowing

54
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What are the three sections of the small intestine?

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

55
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What is the function of the stomach?

Prepares food for the small intestine

56
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What are sphincters?

Muscles that control openings into and out of the stomach

57
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What connects the ileum to the large intestine?

The anus

58
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What is the length of the colon?

5 feet long

59
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What are the four divisions of the colon?

Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon

60
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What is the function of the liver?

Produces bile, maintains blood glucose levels, manufactures blood proteins, and removes toxins

61
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Where is the gallbladder located?

Under the liver

62
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What type of gland is the pancreas?

Both exocrine and endocrine gland

63
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What does the exocrine function of the pancreas produce?

Enzymes to digest starch, fats, and proteins

64
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What does the endocrine function of the pancreas release?

Insulin

65
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What is the term for the condition of loss of appetite?

Anorexia

66
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What is ascites?

Abnormal collection of fluid in the abdomen

67
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What is dysphagia?

Difficulty swallowing

68
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What causes jaundice?

High levels of bilirubin in the blood

69
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What is steatorrhea?

Excess fat in feces

<p>Excess fat in feces</p>
70
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What is the cause of dental caries?

Bacterial growth in plaque leading to tooth decay

71
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What are esophageal varices?

Swollen, varicose veins in the esophagus or upper stomach

72
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What is GERD?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease, where solids and fluids return to the mouth from the stomach

73
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What is a peptic ulcer?

An open sore in the mucous membrane of the stomach or duodenum

74
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What is colorectal cancer?

Cancer of the colon, rectum, or both

75
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What is diverticulosis?

Abnormal side pockets in the intestinal wall

76
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What is cholelithiasis?

Presence of gallstones in the gallbladder

77
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What is cirrhosis?

Chronic degenerative disease of the liver

78
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What is pancreatitis?

Inflammation of the pancreas

79
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What is the hemoccult test used for?

To detect blood in feces and screen for colon cancer

80
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What does a stool culture test for?

Microorganisms present in fecal material

81
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What is the purpose of liver function tests?

To test for presence of enzymes and bilirubin in the blood serum

82
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What is the lower GI series?

X-rays taken of the rectum and colon after barium sulfate is inserted rectally

83
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What is the upper GI series?

X-rays taken of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine after barium sulfate is swallowed

84
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What is an abdominal ultrasound used for?

To produce an image of abdominal viscera using sound waves, helpful for examining fluid-filled structures.

85
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What is bariatric surgery?

A surgical procedure used for weight loss in severely obese patients.

86
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What is paracentesis?

A procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen, often used to drain ascites.

87
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What does the suffix '-emesis' mean?

Vomiting.

88
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What does the suffix '-pepsia' refer to?

Digestion, often associated with indigestion.

89
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What does the suffix '-phagia' indicate?

Swallowing or excessive hunger.

90
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What does the suffix '-rrhage' signify?

Excessive bleeding or bursting.

91
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What is the abbreviation for barium enema?

BE.

92
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What does the abbreviation 'CT' stand for?

Computed tomography.

93
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What does 'GERD' stand for?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease.

94
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What does 'IBD' refer to?

Inflammatory bowel disease.

95
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What is the meaning of 'NPO'?

Nothing by mouth.

96
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What does 'PUD' stand for?

Peptic ulcer disease.

97
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What are the six cranial bones?

Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones.

<p>Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones.</p>
98
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What are the six facial bones?

Maxilla, mandible, zygomatic, nasal, palatine, and lacrimal bones.

<p>Maxilla, mandible, zygomatic, nasal, palatine, and lacrimal bones.</p>
99
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What is the function of the gastrointestinal system?

To digest food and absorb nutrients.

100
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What is the order of food flow in the GI system?

Mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → anus.