Network+ N10-009 Exam Preparation

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A comprehensive set of flashcards to aid in studying for the Network+ N10-009 certification exam.

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71 Terms

1
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What is the role of DHCP relay agents in a network?

They fire DHCP requests and responses between clients and servers across different subnets.

2
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Which DNS record type maps a domain name to an IPv4 address?

An A record.

3
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What protocol is used by the session layer to manage communication sessions?

RPC (Remote Procedure Call).

4
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How does an IPS differ from an IDS?

An IPS blocks threats while an IDS only detects them.

5
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What protocol is commonly used to establish a secure VPN connection?

IPsec.

6
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How does network address translation (NAT) enhance security?

By hiding internal IP addresses from external networks.

7
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Which port is commonly used by SSH for secure communications?

Port 22.

8
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Which port is used to secure web traffic?

Port 443.

9
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How many usable hosts are there in a /24 subnet?

254 usable hosts.

10
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Which tool is commonly used for analyzing and detecting network-based attacks?

Wireshark.

11
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Which DNS record type is not associated with email?

SRV (Service Record).

12
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What cable type is best for high-speed, long-distance links?

Single mode fiber.

13
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What access control model uses user clearance levels?

Mandatory Access Control (MAC).

14
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What technology allows a single public IP to represent multiple private IPs?

Port Address Translation (PAT).

15
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Which routing protocol is a distance-vector protocol?

RIP (Routing Information Protocol).

16
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What physical tool verifies the integrity of an Ethernet cable?

Cable tester.

17
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Which device operates primarily at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

Switch.

18
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What is the next step after identifying a network problem?

Establish a theory of probable cause.

19
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What should be deployed to restrict non-work website access?

A web proxy server with content filtering.

20
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What does the golden configuration refer to in network management?

A baseline configuration saved for restoration.

21
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Which routing protocol is a link-state protocol?

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First).

22
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Which technology allows secure access to internal resources?

VPN.

23
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Which protocol prevents loops in the network?

Span Tree Protocol (STP).

24
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What is the purpose of a cable crimper?

To attach connectors to network cables.

25
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Which of the following methods allows monitoring of network traffic?

Port mirroring.

26
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How many IP addresses are available in a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?

256 total IP addresses, 254 usable after accounting for network and broadcast addresses.

27
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What tool is best used for monitoring device performance over a network?

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).

28
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Which factors are crucial for selecting the rack size?

Number of devices, future expansion, cooling requirements, and power consumption.

29
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What is the primary benefit of using a content delivery network (CDN)?

Decreases latency and improves access speed by caching content.

30
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What is the most effective tool for monitoring transmitted data for sensitive information?

DLP (Data Loss Prevention).

31
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What should be done next after implementing a solution for a network problem?

Verify full system functionality.

32
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What is the best way to ensure only authorized devices connect to a switch?

Enable port security.

33
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Which protocol allows for real-time communication without guaranteeing delivery?

UDP (User Datagram Protocol).

34
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What is a common method for segmenting a network?

Implement VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks).

35
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Which command verifies the reachability of a host?

Ping.

36
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What command shows the MAC address table on a switch?

Show mac address table.

37
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Which is the best metric used by RIP?

Hop count.

38
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What is the subnet mask for a /30 network?

255.255.255.252.

39
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Which configuration is best for devices handling requests simultaneously?

Active-active load balancing.

40
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What does RPO stand for in disaster recovery?

Recovery Point Objective.

41
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What is the function of the RADIUS protocol?

It provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting.

42
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What type of network topology provides redundancy?

Mesh topology.

43
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What defines a hot site in disaster recovery?

A backup site that is fully operational and can be accessed immediately.

44
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What is the primary function of VLANs?

To segment traffic within the same physical network.

45
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Which command tool displays active network connections?

Netstat.

46
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What type of device connects multiple networks and directs traffic?

Router.

47
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What does DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) manage?

Trunking and VLAN configurations on switches.

48
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Which protocol is used for network-based remote management?

SNMP.

49
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What is the main purpose of using a patch panel?

To organize and manage network cables.

50
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What does a network firewall typically control?

Traffic entering or leaving a network.

51
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What is the primary role of a database server?

To store, retrieve, and manage data.

52
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Which type of attack involves multiple unauthorized access requests?

Brute-force attack.

53
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What document outlines a company's networking practices?

Network policy document.

54
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What is an acceptable compromise for network performance?

QoS (Quality of Service).

55
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What are the two primary domains of IP addressing?

Public and private IP addresses.

56
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What does MAC flooding do in a network?

It overfills the switch's MAC address table, causing traffic to flood all ports.

57
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What kind of system uses a Certificate Authority (CA)?

PKI (Public Key Infrastructure).

58
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How often should a company test its backup system?

Regularly, at set intervals or after significant changes.

59
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What is the primary purpose of a VPN?

To provide secure remote access to a network.

60
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What is the value of a /27 subnet mask?

255.255.255.224.

61
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What is an incorrect practice while using DNS?

Allowing unrestricted dynamic DNS updates.

62
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How does ARP work?

It translates IP addresses to MAC addresses.

63
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What is the function of STP in a network?

To prevent switch loops.

64
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What does EAP stand for in network security?

Extensible Authentication Protocol.

65
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What technique uses multiple servers to provide redundancy?

Load balancing.

66
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How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

32 bits.

67
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What cloud model deploys applications on shared hardware?

Multi-tenancy.

68
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What is the general function of a firewall?

To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic.

69
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What is an ACL in networking?

Access Control List.

70
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How should you manage dynamic IP address allocations?

Using DHCP.

71
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What provides an additional layer of security to data transmissions?

Encryption.