neet mock test all biology questions

every brilliant all unit biology questions

A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large number and its stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by: a) insects b) water c) wind d) animals

wind

during microsporogenesis, meisis occurs in: a) endothecium b) microspore mother cell c) microspore tetrads d) pollen grains

microspore mother cell

the outer most and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively a) endothecium and tapetum b) epidermis and endodermis c) epidemis and middle layer d) epiderms and tapetum

epidermis and tapetum

the megasporangium is equivalent to a) ovary b) ovule c) embryosac d) pollen sac

ovule

sporopollenin present in: a) exine of pollen grain b) intine of pollengrain c) vegetative cell d) generative cell

exine of pollen grain

endosperm in angiosperms is generally:

a) haploid

b) diploid

c) triploid

d) polyploid

triploid

identify the wrong one about pollen grain:

a) intine is the inner layer formed of cellulose and pectin

b) sporopollenin is the most resistant organic material which protects pollen from temperature, acids, alkalies and enzymes

c) vegetative cell of pollen is large with more stored food and irregular nucleus

d) germ pores are areas on intine with sporopollenin

germ pores are areas on intine with sporopollenin (should be exine)

stalk of the ovule by which it is attached to the placenta

a) funicle

b) hilum

c) chalaza

d) integuments

funicle

double fertilization means fusion of male gametes:

a) with egg cell and antipodal cells

b) with synergids and egg cell

c) with antipodals and polar nuclei

d) with polar nuclei and egg

with polar nuclei and egg

statment 1: in some cereals such as rice and wheat pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release

statement 2: in some members of rosacea, leguminoseae and solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for months

both statement 1 and 2 are correct

A: formation of endosperms always precedes the development of the embryo

R: Endosperm provide nourishment to the developing embryo

both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

which of the following plant that was imported with wheat and causes pollen allergy:

a) eichhornia

b) parthenium

c) calotropis

d) hydrilla

parthenium

the emasculation of flower buds is achieved by removal of:

a) sepals

b) anthers

c) stigma

d) corolla

anthers

select the mismatch:

a) zygote —> embryo

b) ovary wall —> pericarp

c) integument —> seed coat

d) synergid —> endosperm

synergid —> endosperm (should be sperm)

statement 1: transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower

statement 2: transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigmas of another flower on the same plant

statement 3: transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigmas of another flower of a different plant of the same species

a) 1-autogamy , 2-geitonogamy , 3-xenogamy

b) 1-autogamy , 2-xenogamy, 3 - geitonogamy

c) 1-allogamy , 2-geitonogamy, 3-xenogamy

d) 1-allogamy, 2-xenogamy, 3-geitonogamy

a) 1-autogamy , 2-geitonogamy , 3-xenogamy

statement 1: pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30 genera - mostly monocots

statement 2: both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar

statement 1 and 2 are correct

A: if pollen mother cell has 42 chromosomes, the pollen grain has only 21 chromosomes

R: pollen rains are formed after meiosis in pollen mother cells

A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

the pollen grains can be stored in liquid N2 (cryopreservation) at:

a) 70 C

b) 100 C

c) 196 C

d) -196 C

-196 C

In michelia and papaver, the gynoecium is:

a) multicarpellary, apocarpous and syncarpous respectively

b) pentacarpellary, syncarpous, and apocarpous respectively

c) multicarpellary, syncarpous, and apocarpous

d) pentacarpellary, apocarpous and syncarpous

a) multicarpellary, apocarpous and syncarpous respectively

filliform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:

a) secondary nucleus

b) antipodals

c) egg nucleus

d) synergids

synergids

chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are found in:

a) commenlina

b) vallisneria

c) hydrilla

d) water lily

Commelina

the coconut water from tender coconut is:

a) cellular endosperm

b) helobial endosperm

c) free nuclear endosperm

d) persistant nucellus

free nuclear endosperm

coleoptile and coleorhiza are the protective sheath covering of ___ and ____ respectively

a) plumule, radicle

b) radicle, plumule

c) plumule, epicotyl

d) radicle, hypocotyl

plumule, radicle

the portion of the enbryonal axis below the level of cotyledons which terminates towrds root system is the:

a) epicotyl

b) hypocotyl

c) plumule

d) radicle

hypocotyl

occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed in many citrus and mango varieties, is refered to as:

a) polyembryony

b) anphimixis

c) polycotyledony

d) epigeal germination

polyembryony

a recent record of 2000 years old viable seeds of which plant is discovered during the archeoligical excavation at King Herod’s palace near the dead sea:

a) cocos nucifera (coconut palm)

b) lupinus arcticus

c) strobilanthus kunithiana (neelakuranji)

d) phoenix dactylifera (date palm)

phoenix dactylifera (date palm)

statement 1: the two layers of pollen grain are exine and intine

statement 2: in 60% of angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at 2-celled stage

both are true

what is the correct sequence in artificial hybridization to produce superior crop varieties in bisexual flowers:

a) selection of parents —> emasculation —> bagging —> pollen dusting —> rebagging

b) selection of parents —> emasculation —> pollen dusting —> bagging —> rebagging

c) selection of parents —> pollen dusting —> emasculation —> bagging —> rebagging

d) selection of parents —> pollen dusting —> bagging —> emasculation —> rebagging

selection of parents —> emasculation —> bagging —> pollen dusting —> rebagging

sequence of embryogeny from the following:

a) zygote - proembryo - heart shaped emrbyo - globular embryo - mature embryo

b) zygote - heart shaped embryo - proembryo - globular embryo - mature embryo

c) proembryo - zygote - globular embryo - heart shaped embryo - mature embryo

d) zygote - proembryo - globular embryo - heart shaped embryo - mature embryo

zygote - proembryo - globular embryo - heart shaped embryo - mature embryo

the outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively:

a) endothecium and tapetum

b) epidermis and endodermis

c) epidermis and middle layer

d) epidermis and tapetum

epidermis and tapetum

from among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium:

a) stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta

b) thalamus, pistil, style, ovule

c) ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum

d) ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

a) stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta

in a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structure are:

a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus

b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei

c) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus

d) synergid, polar nuclei, and zygote

a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus

male gametes or sperms are developed from generative cell by

a) meiotic division

b) mitotic division

c) amitotic division

d) none of these

b) mitotic division

albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in:

a) perisperm

b) endosperm

c) cotyledons

d) hypocotyl

b) endosperm

milky water of green coconut is:

a) liquid chalaza

b) liquid nucellus

c) liquid endosperm

d) liquid female gametophyte

c) liquid endosperm

anther is typically

a) tetrasporangiate

b) bisporangiate

c) trisporangiate

d) monosporangiate

a) tetrasporangiate

dicot embry consists of

a) radicle and plumule

b) radicle, plumule, cotelydones and sometimes endosperm

c) radicle, plumule, coteyledones and tegmen

d) radicle, plumule, cotyledons, tegmen and testa

b) radicle, plumule, cotelydones and sometimes endosperm

cleistogamous flowers are:

a) wind pollinated

b) self pollinated

c) cross pollinated

d) insect pollinated

b) self pollinated

pollination by water occurs in

a) vallisneria

b) water lily

c) yucca

d) all of these

a) vallisneria

persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:

a) chalaza

b) perisperm

c) hilum

d) tegmen

b) perisperm

the largest cell of the mature embryo sac is:

a) antipodal cells

b) synergids

c) central cell

4) egg cell

c) central cell

in 40% of angiosperms, the pollen grain are shed at:

a) 4-celled stage

b) 3-celled stage

c) 2-celled stage

d) 5-celled stafe

b) 3-celled stage

ovules are attached to parenchymatous cushion called:

a) nucellus

b) obturator

c) conducting tissue

d) placenta

d) placenta

function megaspore in an angiosperm develops into:

a) endosperm

b) embryo sac

c) embryo

d) ovule

b) embryo sac

during the hydrbidisation experiment, mendel selected

a) 7 true breeding varieties

b) 7 impure breeding varieties

c) 14 true breeding varieties

d) 14 impure breeding varieties

c) 14 true breeding varieties

in morgan;s experiment using drosophila, the term ‘wild’ is used to represent:

a) dominant phenotype

b) recessive phenotype

c) heterozygous genotype

d) homozygous recessive genotype

a) dominant phenotype

male progeny always have one chromosome less than female progenies in the case of which organisms?

a) drosophila

b) birds

c) grass hoppers

d) hong bee

grass hoppers

IA and IB are responsible for?

a) complete dominance

b) codominance

c) multiple allelism

d) complete dominance and codominance

b) codominance

G.J Mendel conducted hybridisation experiment in pea plant during the period:

a) 1822-1826

b) 1856-1863

c) 1865-1884

d) 1884-1900

b) 1856-1863

ABO blood group system in human beings is an example of:

i) incomplete dominance ii) complete dominance iii) multipleallelism iv) polygenic inheritance v) co-dominance

a) i and v only

b) i, iii and v only

c) iii and iv only

d) ii, iii and v only

d) ii, iii and v only

mating between two parents having the blood group AB and O can have the offspring with blood group?

a) A and B group

b) AB and O group

c) A and AB group

d) B and AB group

a) A and B group

Which among the following is a wild type?

a) yellow body red eye

b) yellow body white eye

c) brown body white eye

d) brown body red eye

d) brown body red eye

According to G.J Mendel, dominant allele can be expressed in?

a) homozygous condition only

b) heterozygous condition only

c) both 1 and 2

d) none of these

c) both 1 and 2

mutation of two genes present on the 16th pair of chromosome is the root cause behind which mendelian disorder?

a) alpha-thalassemia

b) beta-thalassemia

c) sickle-cell anemia

d) colour blindness

alpha- thalassemia

who among the following used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distanct between genes to map their position?

a) TH Morgan

b) alfred sturtevant

c) henking

d) langdon down

b) alfred sturtevant

Which among the following contrasting forms of character selected by Mendel is not expressed in the F1 generation:

a) round seed shape

b) yellow seed shape

c) yellow pod colour

d) green pod colour

yellow pod colour

find the incorrect match

a) henking-sex determination

b) sturtevant - down’s syndrome

c) morgan - linkage and recombination

d) de vries - rediscovery of mendelism

b) sturtevant - down’s syndrome is incorrect, as Alfred Sturtevant is known for his work on gene mapping, not Down's syndrome.

the percentage of recombinants in the cross considering the characters eye colour and shape of wings is:

a) 98.7%

b) 1.3%

3) 62.8%

d) 37.2 %

d) 37.2%

genes which codes for a pair of contrasting traits are known as?

a) alleles

b) locus

c) phenoype

d) monohybrids

a) alleles

test cross is used to identify the:

a) unknown genotype of the recessive phenotype

b) unknown phenotype of the dominant genotype

c) unknown phenotype of the recessive genotype

d) unknown genotype of the dominant phenotype

unknown genotype of the dominant phenotype

IA, IB, and i are responsible for?

a) dominance

b) codominance

c) multiple allelism

d) all of the above

all of the above

mental retardation and a reduction in hair and skin pigmentation are symptoms for?

a) klinefelter’s syndrome

b) thalassemia

c) phenylketonuria

d) sickle-cell anemia

c) phenylketonuria

the individuals with 2 dissimilar factors for a particular character in a mendelian cross is an example for?

a) homozygous dominant

b) homozygous recessive

c) heterozygous dominant

d) heterozygous recessive

c) heterozygous dominant

the reason for getting very low percent (1.3%) recombinants in Morgan’s cross was due to?

a) gene white and miniature was tightly linked

b) gene white and yellow was loosely linked

c) gene white and yellow was tightly linked

d) gene white and miniature was loosely linked

c) gene white and yellow was tightly linked

sickle cell anemia is related to beta-thalassemia in both sharing

a) quantitative traits

b) qualitative traits

c) same gene

d) different gene

c) same gene

in mendel’s F2 generation:

a) only 1 of the parental traits was expressed

2) both the parental traits was observed in 3:1 ratio

c) only the recessive parental traits was observed

d) only the dominant parental traits was observed

b) both the parental traits was observed in 3:1 ratio

a true breeding plant is crossed with a recessive parent. the possible genotypes of the Fi could be?

a) homozygous recessive

b) heterozygous only

c) homozygous only

d) both homozygous and heterozygous

d) both homozygous and heterozygous

maximum probability that a male child is affected with haemophilia is from?

a) affected father

b) carrier father

c) carrier mothers

d) both 1 and 2

c) carrier mothers

the sahiwal cow in punjab is an example for?

a) inbreeding

b) selective breeding

c) cloning

d) both 1 and 2

b) selective breeding

when two genes are linked on a chromosomes, the number of parental type will increase when

a) low strength of linkage

b) high strength of linkage

c) genes are loosly linked

d) more chance of crossing over

b) high strength of linkage

genes which codes for a pair of contrasting traits are called?

a) alleles

b) locus

c) phenotype

D) monohybrid

Alleles

skin colour in humans are an example for?

a) multiple allelism

b) co-dominance

c) polygenic inheritance

d) pleotrophy

c) polygenic inheritance

if both parents are unaffected carriers of sickle cell anemia, what is the probability of formation of anaemic offsprings?

a) Nil

b) 25%

c) 50%

d) 100%

b) 25%

which amoung the following genetic disorder is an example for defent in amino acid metabolism

a) colour blindness

b) sicle cell anaemia

c) thalassemia

d) phenylketonuria

phenylketonuria

A: Haemophilia and colour blindness are x-linked recessive gene disorders, so the frequency of these two diseases are more in males than in females

R: for xlinked recessive disorders, male posses only one allele to express the disease

both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation

A: in multiple allelism the gene has more than two alleles for a character

r: all these alleles are present in a normal individual

A is true, R is false

how many different types of genotupes and phenotypes are there in a monohybrid F2 respectively?

a) 2 and 2

b) 3 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 and 2

3 and 2

A: carrier genotype never appear in males with respect to x-linked recessive traits

R: genes for haemophilia is located on 21 chromosome

A is true, R is false

gene B is responsible for both starch grain size and shape of the pea seeds, if starch grain size is considered gene B shows?

a) complete dominance

b) incomplete dominance

c) co-dominance

d) multiple allelism

incomplete dominance

home many different type of gametes are produced from a dihybrid F1?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

4 distinct gametes

Thanlassemia is caused due to the mutation in HBB gene. In which chromsome the mutated gene is located?

a) chromosome 1

b) chromosome 11

c) chromosome 16

d) chromosome X

chromosome 11

mnedel found that the F1 always resemble either of the parents, and that the traits of other parents was not seen in them. this is due to?

a) law of segregation

b) law of dominance

c) law of codominance

d) all of the above

law of dominance

X is an indiviual formed from a queen honey bee through pathanogenesis. identify the features that are true to X.

a) X only have 32 chromosomes

b) X will produce gametes normally by meiosis

c) X do not have a father but can have a son

d) X produce gametes by mitosis

x produce gametes by mitosis

sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder caused to the mutation of a gene 7. it is a:

a) autosomal recessive disorder

b) mendelian disorder

c) chromosomal aberration

d) both 1 and 2

both 1 and 2

a colour blind women married a normal man. In what probability will the male child be affected?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

100%

Thalassemia was found to be an autosomal recessive disorder. which among the following is not true about the disease ?

a) appears in both sexes with equal frequncy

b) can skip generation

c) if both parents are heterozygous, approx. ¼ of the offspring will be affected

d) unaffected parents do not transmit the disease

d) unaffected parents do not transmit the disease

inheritance is the process by which characters are passed from:

a) parents to progeny

b) F1 to F2

c) progeny to parents

d) both 1 and 2

both 1 and 2

A: phylogenetic classification systems are based on evolutionary relationship between the various organisms

R: it is easily carried out be using computers and is based on all observable characteristics

A is correct but R is wrong

match the following and choose the correct combo:

a) psilopsida i) adiantum

b) lycopsida ii) equisetum

c) sphenopsida iii) psilotum

d) pteropsida iv) selanginella

A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

protonema is the juvenile filamentous stage in the life cycle of

a) funaria

b) fucus

c) cycas

d) marchantia

funaria

female repro part of bryothpyte is:

a) antheridium

b) oogonium

c) conidia

d) archegonium

archegonium

which of the following is haploid in gymnosperms

a) pollen grain, megaspore, root

b) pollen grain, megaspore, nucellus

c) megaspore mother cell, root, leaf

d) endosperm, pollen grain, megaspore

endosperm, pollen grain, megaspore

region of root arranged from root tip to base of the stem

a) maturation zone - meristematic zone - elongation zone

b) maturation zone - elongation zone - meristematic zone

c) meristematic zone - elongation zone - maturation zone

d) elongation zone - meristematic zone - maturation zone

c) meristematic zone - elongation zone - maturation zone

plant showing alternate, opposite and whorled phyllotaxy respectively are:

a) china rose, calotropis, alstonia

b) china rose, alstonia, calotropis

c) alstonia, china rose, calotropis

d) alstonia, calotropis, china rose

a) china rose, calotropis, alstonia

technicak term used related to androecium in a flower of china rose is:

a) diadelphous

b) polyadelphous

c) polyandrous

d) monoadelphous

monoadelphous

the scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in dicotyledons

a) plumule

b) cotyledon

c) endosperm

d) aleurone layer

b) cotyledon

in dicot stem, the vascular bundles are:

a) scattered in ground tissue

b) radial and open

c) closed and have bundle sheath

d) arranged in form of a ring

arranged in form of a ring

which of the following statements are not true

a) cork cambium = phellogen b) cork = phellem c) secondary cortex = periderm

d) cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called phelloderm

1) b and c only

2) a and b only

3) c and d only

4) b and d only

c and d only

which of the following statment is incorrect

a) vascular bundle in dicotr stem is conjoint, open with endarch xylem

b) in monocot stem, vascular bundles are scattered and surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath

c) in monocot root, exarch xylen is present

d) in monocot stem, hypodermis is made up of collenchyma

d) in monocot stem, hypodermis is made up of collenchyma

parenchymatous cells fillinf the space between epidermis and vascular tissues in the leaf is:

a) epibelma

b) grouns tissue

c) mesophyll

d) both 2 and 3

both 2 and 3