CDCs V5 (OEH Risk Assessment: Special Programs) UREs

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100 Terms

1
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What type of aquifer would cause water to be pushed in a well above the land surface?

Artesian

3 multiple choice options

2
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Groundwater is stored in..

unsaturated and saturated zones

3 multiple choice options

3
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Which constituent is not commonly found in groundwater?

Nitrate

3 multiple choice options

4
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What dissolved gas needs to be at an adequate level to prevent drinking water from tasting flat?

Oxygen

3 multiple choice options

5
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Which Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) drinking water standard is a guideline that applies to the cosmetic effects of drinking water?

Secondary

3 multiple choice options

6
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What law passed by Congress established a federal program to monitor and increase the safety of all publically and commercially supplied drinking water?

Safe Water Drinking Act (SDWA)

3 multiple choice options

7
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Which installation must comply with the Department of Defense (DOD) Final Governing Standards (FGS) or Environmental Governing Standards (EGS)?

Royal Air Force (RAF) Fetwell, United Kingdom

3 multiple choice options

8
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What program is designed to ensure the protection of groundwater supplied by public water systems by protecting the area around the well head from all types of contamination?

Well Head Protection Program (WHPP)

9
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What is the minimum average number of individuals served daily and the number of days per year required for a system to be classified as a public water system?

25 individuals for 60 days or more days per year

3 multiple choice options

10
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Which is the common type of water treatment used at Air Force (AF) installations?

Disinfection

3 multiple choice options

11
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Which disinfection method proveides a disinfectant residual?

Free Chlorine

3 multiple choice options

12
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After a water main is installed and at the end of a 24-hour holding period filled with chlorinated potable water, the free chlorine residual must not be less than..

25 mg/L

3 multiple choice options

13
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During a water main break repair, which water pressure will not require the water main to be disinfected and tested for coliform before being place back into service?

25 psi

3 multiple choice options

14
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What is the most practical means of removing contamination introduced during water main repairs?

Flushing

3 multiple choice options

15
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What method of chlorination may be used if the pipes and components are kept clean and dry during the construction?

Tablet

3 multiple choice options

16
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What describes the backward flow of water in the distribution system due to decreased pressure (i.e. line break) in the potable distribution system?

Backsiphonage

3 multiple choice options

17
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How often is the Water System Backflow Prevention/Cross-Connection Survey done on all facilities?

Every five years

3 multiple choice options

18
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What hazard classification for a cross-connection is also defined as contamination?

High

3 multiple choice options

19
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Which is not a critical element examined and evaluated during a sanitary survey?

Security

3 multiple choice options

20
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What results does a sanitary survey provide the installation?

Current and potential threats to water quality and system reliability

3 multiple choice options

21
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What sanitary survey element are you addressing when you identify a discrepancy that tank vents and overflows are not screened or protected?

Finished water storage

3 multiple choice options

22
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Which military field water standar is designed to prevent acute illness?

Short-term potability (STP) standards

3 multiple choice options

23
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Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-246, Food and Water Protection Program, states Air Force (AF) water supplies are..

credible targets

3 multiple choice options

24
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Water vulnerability assessments (WVA) should be done or updated at deployed locations..

during each rotation

3 multiple choice options

25
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Which interview questionnaire is designed to be the initial checklist used when conducting the join interview of the Air Force (AF) system owner/operator and stakeholders?

Base Potable Water System Overview

26
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How long does the base have to deliver a public notice of a Tier 1 violation?

24 hours

3 multiple choice options

27
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How long does a water supplier have to provide notice of a Tier 2 violation to its customers?

30 days

3 multiple choice options

28
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Which should not be included in the consumer confidence report?

The formulas used to reach the assessment results on local contamination

3 multiple choice options

29
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How many days before opening is the pre-season inspection conducted at a swimming pool?

30

3 multiple choice options

30
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Which is one of the organizations that perform surveys of natural bathing areas?

Services (SVS)

3 multiple choice options

31
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The swimming pool manager or lifeguard measures potential for hydrogen (pH) at least once every..

2 hours

3 multiple choice options

32
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The pressure of moving air is always measured in the direction of airflow. What kind of pressure is this?

Always positive

3 multiple choice options

33
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Less resistance and better contaminant capture in a ventilation system happens by using..

a flange or tapered hood

3 multiple choice options

34
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Where should you expect the static pressure (SP) to become more negative in a ventilation system?

At the inlet to the fan

3 multiple choice options

35
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Which type of velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood?

Capture

3 multiple choice options

36
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What are two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate the airflow volume (Q)?

Area and velocity

3 multiple choice options

37
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The cubic feet per minute (cfm) through a cross-sectional area of a ventilation booth is the same as..

velocity

3 multiple choice options

38
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In dilution ventilation, a slight negative pressure is desirable when..

an adjoining room is normally occupied

3 multiple choice options

39
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What circumstance would results in a high K factor?

Higher contaminant toxicities

3 multiple choice options

40
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Other than good contaminant control, what is the biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation?

Lower operating costs

3 multiple choice options

41
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The purpose of using splitter vanes, multiple takeoffs, or baffles inside of a local exhaust hood is to provide..

uniform air distribution across the hood face

3 multiple choice options

42
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What determines the capture velocity that must be used for aproperly designed hood?

Number of open sides

3 multiple choice options

43
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In a routine survey, ventilation system data collected during the routine assessment should be compared to..

data collected during the baseline survey

3 multiple choice options

44
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What instrument is used to take face velocity measurements and actually converts velocity pressure (VP) to velocity readings?

Swinging vane anemometer

3 multiple choice options

45
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What important procedure must you follow to obtain accurate readings with a velometer?

Hold the probe parallel to the airflow

3 multiple choice options

46
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What may be indicated by a very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system?

Inadequate makeup air

3 multiple choice options

47
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What is the purpose of the eight tiny holes on the outside of a pitot tube?

Sense static pressure (SP)

3 multiple choice options

48
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Velocity pressure (VP) when measured across the duct is..

weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center

3 multiple choice options

49
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The range of acceptable values for the airflow volume (Q) on routine tests is within what percentage of the baseline value?

10

3 multiple choice options

50
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What is the first step you take when conducting a static pressure (SP) check on your routine ventilation test?

Find the measurement point

3 multiple choice options

51
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When conducting an indoor air quality (IAQ) investigation, what would be considered an ideal range for carbon dioxide (CO2) within a building?

1000 ppm or less

3 multiple choice options

52
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During your indoor air quality (IAQ) investigation, you document several drip pans with standing water. Which recommendation would be most desirable?

Eliminate source or water

3 multiple choice options

53
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Which agency serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection (RP) program?

Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE)

3 multiple choice options

54
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Who will provide resolution when there are inconsistencies for respiratory protection (RP) between technical orders (TO) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards?

Respiratory protection administrator

3 multiple choice options

55
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Who will provide resolution for ensuring that approved respirators are used correctly and are properly maintained?

Workplace Supervisor

3 multiple choice options

56
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What series of filter cannot be used if aerosolized oil particles are present in the work environment?

N

3 multiple choice options

57
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What respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer?

Air-line

3 multiple choice options

58
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At least how often are respirators used for emergency use only required to be inspected?

Monthly

3 multiple choice options

59
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Why is it important to rinse a respirator in clean water after it has been immersed in a disinfecting solution?

Because traces of the disinfectant left on the mask can cause skin irritation

3 multiple choice options

60
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Proper respirator selection is not based on which of these criteria?

Worker's respirator brand preference

3 multiple choice options

61
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Which respirator selection factors would be considered during the planning or emergency situations in which workers must escape?

Location of hazardous area with respect to area with respirable air

3 multiple choice options

62
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What is the highest contaminant concentration for which a respirator adequately protects the wearer?

Maximum use concentration (MUC)

3 multiple choice options

63
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A fit factor can be calculated for what type of fit-test?

Quantitative

3 multiple choice options

64
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What method of fit-testing must be used when specified by an Occupational Safety and Health ACt (OSHA) substance-specific standard?

Quantitative

3 multiple choice options

65
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What method of fit-testing relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air?

Qualitative

3 multiple choice options

66
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Workers are required to be trained and fit-tested initially and every..

12 months

3 multiple choice options

67
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Supervisor training should be repeated when there is a..

permanent change of station (PCS)

3 multiple choice options

68
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Personnel who issue respirators are briefed how often and by whom concerning the issue of respirator parts?

Annually; by supervisor

3 multiple choice options

69
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To whom does bioenvironmental engineering (BE) report the findings of a respiratory program review?

Aeromedical Council and the Combined Occupational Safety and Health Council

3 multiple choice options

70
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Which organization is responsible for the overall management of the Confined Space Program?

Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE)

3 multiple choice options

71
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Before a worker can perform verification testing of a confined space, they must be..

be trained and certified on the specific testing equipment and qualified to interpret the results

3 multiple choice options

72
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Which atmospheric characteristics classify a confined space as permit-required?

Contains a material that has the potential for a hazardous atmosphere to develop

3 multiple choice options

73
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Which gas should be used to ventilate a confined space?

Normal air

3 multiple choice options

74
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If workers or other people could inadvertently enter a permit-required confined space, what action must be taken?

Post a danger sign at the entrance of the space

3 multiple choice options

75
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Entry permit must be approved by the installation..

ground safety officer, BE, and fire department personnel

3 multiple choice options

76
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Which situation is most likely to require immediate communication?

You have identified conditions that are immediately hazardous to life or health

3 multiple choice options

77
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All of these are goals of risk communication except for..

frightening workers into personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing compliance

3 multiple choice options

78
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In developing your message and determining how to deliver it, what question should you ask about the audience?

All of the above

3 multiple choice options

79
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AFI 90-821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, describes the requirements of which federal regulation?

Title 29 CFR 1910.1200

3 multiple choice options

80
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To which of the following items do AFI 90-821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, requirements do not apply?

All of the above

3 multiple choice options

81
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Select the best option for items to which hazard communication (HAZCOM) labeling requirements do apply.

Any Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) expanded standard

3 multiple choice options

82
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Which individual/office has the primary responsiblity of documenting worker hazard communication (HAZCOM) training completion?

Work area/shop supervisor

3 multiple choice options

83
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Upon your arrival, the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program manager for the shop provides you with the chemical inventory. Which chemicals should be listed on this inventory?

Every chemical used in the shop

3 multiple choice options

84
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Written notification of exposures exceeding the action level or occupational exposure limit (OEL) must be provided to the worker by bioenvironmental engineering (BE) within how many days of receiving analytical data?

15

3 multiple choice options

85
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How do supervisors obtain authorization for the first time use of hazardous material (HAZMAT) in their area?

Submit Air Force (AF) Form 3952

3 multiple choice options

86
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Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-2501, Emergency Management Program, describes four types of incidents that affect Air Force (AF) operations. An enemy missile with a chemical warfare agent warhead would be an example of what type of incident?

CBRN attack

3 multiple choice options

87
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The role of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) in incident response is to..

establish a standardized incident management structure used by responders

3 multiple choice options

88
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What working group focuses primarily on analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander?

Installation threat working group (TWG)

3 multiple choice options

89
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During response operations, if you are donning protective equipment to enter a site to perform sampling, to what section of the response structure are you assigned?

Operations

3 multiple choice options

90
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What did Congress enact in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storing and handling of toxic chemicals?

Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know (EPCRA)

3 multiple choice options

91
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Which is a key provision of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)?

All of the above are key provisions of the EPCRA

3 multiple choice options

92
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Which agency acts as the single federal point of contact for all pollution incident reporting?

National Response Center (NRC)

3 multiple choice options

93
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All these characteristics make toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) attractive improvised weapons except..

inability to safeguard against

3 multiple choice options

94
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The main purpose of a toxic industrial chemical/toxic industrial materials (TIC/TIM) vulnerability assessment (VA) is it..

provides an indication of the types of incidents that could occur at your installation

3 multiple choice options

95
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When identifying toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) vulnerability assessment (VA) final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific United States (US) military site, it must receive what classification?

CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET

3 multiple choice options

96
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If a toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) in the vicinity of an installation, you should collect data on and evaluate facilities within how many miles of the installation?

20

3 multiple choice options

97
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What are the two primary types of shelters portrayed in the Air Force Emergency Management Program?

Deliberately planned and shelter-in-place

3 multiple choice options

98
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Under shelter operations, who spearheads identifying and evaluating installation facilities that can be used as shelters?

Base civil engineer (CE)

3 multiple choice options

99
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Which of the source materials provides short-term military exposure guidelines (MEG) for HRA in military unique situations?

USAPHS Technical Guide 230, Chemical Exposure Guidelines for Deployed Military Personnel

3 multiple choice options

100
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Which of the source materials are useful for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) incidents?

Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool (CHEMRAT)

3 multiple choice options