viro

T or f The viruses containing positive sense RNA use their RNA genome directly as mRNA

True

T or f Part of the viroids are composed of single-stranded DNA, another part- by double stranded DNA

False

T or f The ability of a virus to infect an organism primarily depends on  the existence of specific receptor sites on a target cell surface

True

Which of  the following viruses can't be attributed  to the RNA viruses?

Herpesvirus

Parvovirus

A 29-year-old soldier recently returned from a deployment to West Africa. He presents with high fever, profuse vomiting, diarrhea, and conjunctival injection. Over the next day, he develops internal bleeding and hypotension. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Ebola virus disease

Tumor viruses share which common characteristic?

They have the ability to cause tumors regardless of size, shape, or genome type

Tumor viruses share which common characteristic?

They have the ability to cause tumors regardless of size, shape, or genome type

Which tumor virus is associated with a carcinoma of Merkel cells in the skin?

Merkel cell polyomavirus

A 50-year-old man with chronic hepatitis B infection develops signs of liver cirrhosis. He is at increased risk of developing what cancer?

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A 50-year-old man with chronic hepatitis B infection develops signs of liver cirrhosis. He is at increased risk of developing what cancer?

Hepatocellular carcinoma

T or f The only mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is cell rupture

False

T or f The lytic virus after entry of target cells immediately starts to release large amount of viral particles

False

T or f The rabies virus and herpes simplex virus are example of viruses that spread by lymphatic system

False

Selective inhibition of influenza virus by presently  known antivirals most often targets inhibition of which 2 steps viral replication

Penetration

Uncoating

68-year-old woman is hospitalized for treatment in the hematooncology unit. One day after admission she develops chills, fever, cough, headache, and myalgia. The  major concern is possibilityof a hospital acquired infection due to respiratory virus outbreak in the staff and in the patients  of the chemotherapy ward.  A synthetic amine that inhibits influenza A virus by blocking viral uncoating is chosen for prophylactic treatment of the staff and patients. That drug is

Amantadine

Which one of the following represents one of the fundamental principles of viral disease causation?

Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce a clinical disease

Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect (CPE) of viruses?

Intensification of cell metabolism

The human diseases caused by prions all of the following except

Japanese encephalitis

Which of the following viruses  enter the body  through skin abrasions and cause infection?

Papillomavirus

Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called

Latent viruses

According to the following characteristics Orhomyxoviruses show almost no difference with Paramyxoviruses EXCEPT    

Genome is segmented

Oncogenic viruses

Cause tumors to develop

T or f There are 15 known human serotypes of adenoviruses

False

T or f Parvovirus can be transmitted via fecal-oral route

False

On the picture below what is this rash called and for which viral disease is characteristic?

Slapped cheek

Fifth disease   

Which one of the following is a disease in which the role of parvovirus B19 has not been established?

Fulminant hepatitis

Which statements about parvovirus B19 are least correct?

The disease is transmitted by the fecal-oral route

Adenoviruses infect

Both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract

Parvovirus B19 can cause all of the following except

Acute gastroenteritis

T or f Majority of the poxviruses that can cause important diseases in humans are contained in the genus Orthopoxvirus

True

T or f The core of poxviruses contains the largest viral genome -  linear double- stranded DNA with the size range 100-150 kbp

False

The Herpesviridae can be subdivided into three ___________ based on the type of cells most often infected and the site of ______.

Subfamilies

Latency

The most common congenital infection is caused by

Cytomegalovirus

Each of the following statements concerning Epstein-Barr virusis correct except

The earlier in life primary infection is acquired, the more likely the typical picture of infectious mononucleosis will be manifest.

The replication cycle of different herpesviruses may vary

18 to 70 hours

From where do most Herpesviruses assemble and bud?

Nucleus

Which herpesvirus is the causative agent of genital infections?

Herpes simplex -2

T or f The norovirus is a most common  cause of viral gastroenteritis  in Adults worldwide

True

T or f For prevention of  coxsackie virus infection a live vaccine is used

False

For the prevention of a number of Picornavirus infections, different types of vaccines have been used for several decades. Which 2 of the following statements are not correct?

There is an effective killed vaccine against the three major types of rhinoviruses.

The major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory infections by immunization is    

large number of rhinovirus serotypes

A 21-year-old man develops myopericarditis with mild congestive heart failure that increases over several weeks. Coxsackievirus B5 infection is diagnosed. Which of the following clinical syndromes is not associated with coxsackievirus infections?

Progressive postpolio muscle atrophy

Regarding rhinoviruses, which one of the following is most accurate?    

Rhinoviruses have many serologic types, so a person can have many infections caused by these viruses   

T or f Hemaglutinin is an envelope protein of influence viruses. It can agglutinate RBCs

True

T or f Influenza virus A neuraminidase forms a spike structure composed of 6 identical monomers, each with enzyme activity

False

T or f Influenza type B, like influenza A, sometimes undergoes antigenic changes and can cause epidemics

True

T or f Amantadine hydrochloride and an analog, rimantadine, are M2 ion channel inhibitors for systemic use in the treatment and prophylaxis of influenza A and B

False

Which 2 of the following statements reflect the pathogenesis of influenza?

The virus enters the host in airborne droplets.

Viremia is common.

Which of the following statements about the congenital rubella syndrome is correct?

Deafness is a common defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome.

Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is correct?

The testes, ovaries, and pancreas can be involved

Laryngotracheobronchitis - a respiratory obstruction in infants due to swelling of the larynx and related structures can be related to the infections caused by which if the following viruses

Parainfluenza virus type 1&2

Which of the following viruses is not a cause of acute respiratory disease?

Rotavirus

A 26-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of high fever, cough, sore throat, and myalgia for the past 48 hours. She reports no significant medical history. Physical examination shows mild pharyngeal erythema and bilateral rhonchi. A rapid influenza antigen test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Oseltamivir within 48 hours of symptom onset

A 45-year-old man with no past medical history is recovering from influenza but presents with a worsening fever, cough, and pleuritic chest pain 5 days after symptom onset. Chest X-ray shows consolidation in the right lower lobe. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this complication?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

N59 A 10-year-old child presents to the pediatric clinic with fever, swelling of the parotid glands, and a headache that has lasted for 2 days. The child has no significant past medical history, and there is no history of recent trauma or foreign travel. Which of the following is the most common complication of this condition in post-pubertal males?

orchitis (inflammation of the testicles)

T or f Hepatitis D Virus is a defective virus, it cannot replicate by itself because it does not have the genes for its envelope protein.

True

T or f Health care personnel who sustain a needle-stick injury while taking bloodfrom a person with hepatitis B should receive acyclovir for post-exposure prophylaxis

False

Which 2 the following statements concerning HCV and HDV are not correct

The US and Western Europe are characterized with intermediate to the high prevalence of HDV

People infected with HCV commonly become chronic carriers of HCV and are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma

Which following statements regarding HCV is not correct

medium to large size viruses with a diameter 80- 140 nm

Laboratory diagnostics of HAV infections is done using following except

Detection of the virus RNA in the sputum by RT-PCR

Following statements regarding Hepatitis A virus are correct except

Multiple serotypes of HAV are known

T or f Togaviruses are divided into two families, out of which alphaviruses are considered as arboviruses

True

T or f Bunyaviruses include many arboviruses, including Yellow fever virus, California encephalitis virus, West Nile virus, Sadfly Fever virus and others

False

West Nile virus can cause disease in humans that may be transmitted from an infected bird to a person by a mosquito. This is an example of

Arthropod-borne disease

Vector transmitted disease

Togaviruses are characterized by following properties except:

Large size viruses, 100 to 150 nm in diameter

African hemorrhagic fevers are severe diseases often ending in death. Which of the following is most accurate about the Ebola virus?

It is spread by contact with blood or other body fluids.

Which group of people is at higher risk of becoming seriously ill with West Nile virus?

People over 60

Which of the following descriptions of or statements about Lassa fever is correct?

It occurs from contact with the house rat Mastomys natalensis.   

Which of the following statement is NOT correct for Japanese Encephalitis (JE)?

  Japanese Encephalitis is a bacterial virus -borne disease.   

T or f The retinoblastoma gene is a tumor suppressor gene that inhibits cell division.

True

T or f Papillomaviruses are enveloped viruses.

False

T or f Viral transformation always results in immediate tumor formation.

False

Which 2 of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine Gardasil are NOT correct?

It contains virus-like particles composed of HPV L1 proteins derived from HPV types 6, 32, 16, and 35.

The re-vaccination is required every second year

For the statement that a virus is the only etiologic agent of specific cancer, which of the following must be verified

All are true

Viruses can cause cancer in animals and humans. Most accurate statement about viral carcinogenesis is that

Not all infections with a human cancer virus lead to tumor formation

T or f The  HIV group-specific antigen, p24, is located in the core and is known to have a stable structure without significant variations.

True

T or f For successful HAART therapy a one year course administered to HIV infected person would be enough to establish stable remission.

False

T or f HIV uses CD4, receptors expressed on macrophages, and T lymphocytes. Coreceptors are the chemokine receptors CXCR4 (for macrophage-tropic strains of HIV-1) and CCR5 (for lymphocyte-tropic strains of virus

False

The following statements concerning HIV infection are correct except which 2 of them

Zidovudine (azidothymidine), is widely used in AIDS treatment as a protease inhibitor

Is evidence that an individual is protected against HIV by application of HTLV vaccine

Regarding the laboratory diagnosis of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which one of the following is most accurate?

Because false-positive results occur in the screening test for HIV, a confirmatory test called the Western blot assay should be performed for those with a positive result on the screening test.

The development of HIV vaccines has been shown very complicated because of following reasons except one

Recombinant vaccines for HIV are considered non-safe

T or f Pathogenic dimorphic fungi are yeast-like at 25°C and mold -like at 37°C

False

T or f One yeast cell can in time produce up to 36  daughter cells by budding

False

Which 2 out of these spores are asexual spores?

Arthroconidium

Sporangiospore

What is the etiologic agent for Tinea Nigra?

Hortae Weneckii

Piedra hortae causes a superficial fungal infection of the hair shaft that is characterized by small dark nodules surrounding the shaft. This infection typically infects the hair of the scalp. Which fungal infection is caused by Piedra hortae?

Black piedra

Which of the following can be used to differentiate bacteria from fungi?

Presence of nucleus

One characteristic found almost exclusively on dermatophytes is the presence of microconidia and macroconidia. Microconidia are more uncommon; however, one group of dermatophytes is recognizable for having a lot of microconidia and only rare macroconidia. Which group of dermatophytes is known for its numerous microconidia?

Trichophyton species

T or f Infections caused by Aspergillus fumigatus can lead to the formation of fungal balls in the lungs after its spores germinate.

True

T or f Opportunistic mycoses are caused by fungi that are always pathogenic.They  rarely cause systemic infections

False

Which 2  statements regarding the epidemiology of candidiasis is correct?

Patients receiving bone marrow transplants are at risk for systemic candidiasis   

Patients with AIDS frequently develop mucocutaneous candidiasis, such as thrush   

55-year-old man, recently recovered from a heart valve transplant, presents to the emergency room with pleuritic chest pain, fever, and chills. He then suffers a myocardial infarction and is unable to be revived. An autopsy reveals septate, acutely branching hyphae in many tissues. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be identified?

Aspergillus

35-year-old man with a CD4 count of 50 presents with a skin nodule on his chest. The nodule is about 3 cm in diameter and is not red, hot, or tender. He says it has been slowly growing bigger for the past 3 weeks. After the biopsy of the nodule, the pathologist says that the patient has disseminated cryptococcosis. Which one of the following is the BEST description of what the pathologist saw in the biopsy specimen?    

Budding yeasts with a thick capsule                                                                                     

A male patient with  AIDS presents to his physician with progressively increasing dyspnea over the past 3 weeks. He also complains of a dry, painful cough, fatigue, and low-grade fever. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral symmetrical interstitial and alveolar infiltration. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause of the above?    

Pneumocistis  jiroveci   

T or f Euglenozoa are flagellated free-living forms, with majority causing diseases in humans ( e.g. Trypanosomas)

False

T or f Plasmodium species, including P. vivax  - the cause of malaria belong to Apicomplexa.

True

Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium vivax are not true?

Is the only cause of cerebral malaria

Causes greater than 20% parasitaemia in peripheral blood

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?

Most of  protozoa cause disease

Blackwater fever is a rare but serious manifestation of malaria caused by which of the following?

P. falciparum

Which one of the following agents can be used to prevent malaria?

Chloroquine