EMT Chapters 38-41 (jbl questions)

A type_________ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can
be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.

A. I
B. II
C. IV
D. IlI

A. I

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include.

A. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.
B. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed.
C. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools.
D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.

A. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. face shields.
B. turnout gear.
C. hazardous materials gear.
D. safety goggles.

A. hazardous materials gear.

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT:

A. completing a detailed written report.
B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival.
C. restocking any disposable items you used.
D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is most important to:

A. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
B. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.
C. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.
D. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes.

A. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than_________mph.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 10
D. 30

D. 30

Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:

A. at least two EMTs.
B. an EMT and a paramedic.
C. an EMT and an AEMT.
D. at least one EMT.

D. at least one EMT.

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?

A. Long bone splinting device
B. Emergency childbirth kit
C. Stethoscope and penlight
D. Bleeding control supplies

D. Bleeding control supplies

Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except:

A. emergency care provided at the scene.
B. transferring the patient to the ambulance.
C. checking equipment on the ambulance.
D. transport of the patient to the hospital.

A. emergency care provided at the scene.

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least when the tubing is clamped________mm Hg

A. 400
B. 100
C. 200
D. 300

D. 300

Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:

A. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
B. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis.
C. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
D. be easily identifiable by their bright green color.

C. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min

The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:

A. intersections.
B. stop signs.
C. railroad crossings.
D. stop lights.

A. intersections.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:

A. disinfection.
B. cleaning.
C. sterilization.
D. high-level disinfection.

B. cleaning.

The purpose of a jump kit is to:

A. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.
B. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
D. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact.

C. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

Typically, medevac helicopters fly at speeds between:

A. 100 and 120 mph.
B. 150 and 200 mph.
C. 120 and 140 mph.
D. 130 and 150 mph.

D. 130 and 150 mph.

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:

A. park downhill from the scene.
B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle.
C. position the ambulance upwind.
D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C. position the ambulance upwind.

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:

A. slam on the brakes. to frighten the tailgater.
B. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.
C. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
D. increase your speed to create more distance.

C. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:

A. drive in the center lane of the highway.
B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.
C. pass other drivers on the right side.
D. remain in the extreme right-hand lane.

B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct?

A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
B. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren.
C. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use.
D. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable.

A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:

A. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side.
B. pass the bus only after all the children have exited.
C. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing
D. back up and take an alternate route to the scene.

C. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing

A 19-vear-old female has iust been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilateral closed femur deformities. You should:

A. stabilize her legs with long board splints.
B. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once.
C. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

C. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

Disentanglement involves:

A. removing a patient from a dangerous position.
B. extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in.
C. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle
D. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar.

A. removing a patient from a dangerous position.

Extrication is defined as:

A. using heavy equipment to access a patient.
B. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.
C. removal from a dangerous situation or position.
D. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim

C. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should:

A. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene.
B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
C. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.
D. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process

B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

In contrast to simple access, complex access:

A. is a skill commonly taught to EMTs.
B. often involves simply unlocking a door.
C. involves forcible entry into a vehicle
D. does not involve the breaking of glass.

C. involves forcible entry into a vehicle

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should:

A. begin treating his or her injuries.
B. administer high-flow oxygen.
C. allow extrication to commence.
D. perform a primary assessment.

D. perform a primary assessment.

Situational awareness is most accurately defined as:

A. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics .
B. performing an initial scan of the scene to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew.
C. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.
D. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher.

C. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.

The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to:

A. accompany search team members and provide care.
B. stand by at the command post until the person is located.
C. direct the search effort from a centralized location
D. report to a location where the patient will be carried.

B. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for:

A. underutilizing personnel at the scene.
B. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment.
C. underestimating the logistics of the incident.
D. unprepared to effectively manage the scene.

C. underestimating the logistics of the incident.

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:

A. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.
B. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
C. should be performed by the most experienced EMT.
D. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.

B. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately_______per cubic foot.

A. 100 Ibs
B. 50 Ibs
C. 200 Ibs
D. 150 Ibs

A. 100 Ibs

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then:

A. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment.
B. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
C. report to the incident commander for instructions.
D. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.

C. report to the incident commander for instructions.

When determining the exact location and position of the patients) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, except:

A. the make and model of the vehicle.
B. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers.
C. the possibility of vehicle instability.
D. the position of the crashed vehicle.

A. the make and model of the vehicle.

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should:

A. remove him or her using a short backboard.
B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.
C. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.
D. move him or her in one fast, continuous step.

B. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team?

A. Shutting off power to downed electrical lines
B. Providing safe entry and access to patients
C. Providing emergency care during extrication
D. Initial triage and patient prioritization

B. Providing safe entry and access to patients

Which of the following is the best example of gaining simple access to a patient?

A. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door
B. Entering a vehicle through an open window
C. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient
D. Removing the roof to access a critical patient

B. Entering a vehicle through an open window

Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team?

A. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped
B. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
C. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool
D. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance

B. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct?

A. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250' from the scene
B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.
C. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury.
D. A trench less than 15' deep usually does not require shoring.

B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should:

A. request the rescue team to extricate him.
B. break the window and unlock the door.
C. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.
D. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

D. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is:

A. immediately beginning triage.
B. surveying the area for hazards.
C. gaining access to the patients).
D. requesting additional resources.

B. surveying the area for hazards.

A carboy is a container that would most likely be used to store and transport:

A. combustible materials
B. flammable liquids.
C. corrosives.
D. explosives.

C. corrosives.

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a___________tag during a mass-casualty incident.

A. red
B. yellow
C. black
D. green

B. yellow

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should:

A. give five rescue breaths and reassess.
B. immediately check for a pulse.
C. open the airway and reassess breathing.
D. triage him or her as expectant.

B. immediately check for a pulse.

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing?

A. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess
B. Assign the patient in the "immediate" category.
C. Triage the patient as "expectant" and move on.
D. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

D. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, except:

A. triage officer.
B. liaison officer.
C. public information officer
D. safety officer.

A. triage officer.

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would most likely:

A. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel.
B. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.
C. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions.
D. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions.

D. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions.

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been:

A. accountability.
B. communication.
C. lack of personnel.
D. incident briefing.

B. communication.

Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of:

A. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team.
B. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism.
C. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel.
D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

The________area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident.

A. triage
B. transportation
C. support
D. staging

D. staging

The_____________supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities.

A. medical
B. transportation
C. treatment
D. triage

B. transportation

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to:

A. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident.
B. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale, mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure.
C. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.
D. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents

C. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

The reference used as a base for vour initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are:

A. the Emergency Response Guidebook.
B. your local EMS protocols.
C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS).
D. the bill of lading.

A. the Emergency Response Guidebook.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called:

A. undermining.
B. single command.
C. freelancing.
D. logistical chaos.

C. freelancing

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster:

A. usually does not require the incident command system process.
B. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower.
C. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients
D. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

D. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:

A. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries.
B. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made.
C. secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.

C. secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone?

A. Command
B. Decontamination
C. Medical monitoring
D. Personnel staging

A. Command

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs?

A. Nonflammable gases
B. Air-reactive solids
C. Water-reactive solids
D. Flammable liquids

C. Water-reactive solids

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does not fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system?

A. Transport
B. Extrication
C. Triage
D. Treatment

B. Extrication

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category?

A. 29-vear-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities
B. 36-year-old female with an open head injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate
C. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding
D. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

D. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct?

A. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred.
B . A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label.
C. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards.
D. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.

D. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.

A disease vector is defined as:

A. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.
B. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.
C. the period of time between exposure and illness
D. the spectrum of signs that define a disease.

A. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.

An attack on an abortion clinic would most likely be carried out by a(n):

A. single-issue group.
B. doomsday cult.
C. extremist political group
D. violent religious group.

A. single-issue group.

Cross-contamination occurs when:

A. an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident.
B. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
C. two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated.
D. an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated.

B. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should:

A. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones.
B. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.
C. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
D. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task.

C. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.

Most terrorist attacks are:

A. nuclear attacks
B. unplanned.
C. covert.
D. impulsive.

C. covert.

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where:

A. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed.
B. weapons of mass destruction are distributed.
C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.
D. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled.

C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

The 1996 Summer Olympics bombing is an example of:

A. an ecoterrorist attack.
B. apocalyptic violence.
C. domestic terrorism
D. state-sponsored terrorism.

C. domestic terrorism

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n):

A. extremist political group.
B. violent religious group.
C. single-issue terrorist group.
D. group of domestic terrorists.

B. violent religious group.

The least harmful form of ionizing radiation is:

A. neutron.
B. alpha.
C. gamma.
D. beta.

B. alpha.

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the:

A. vascular system.
B. nervous system.
C. respiratory tract.
D. skin.

D. skin.

The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called:

A. alkalization.
B. dissemination.
C. weaponization.
D. potentiation.

C. weaponization.

The skin lesions associated with smallpox:

A. are identical in their development.
B. develop early during the disease
C. are of different shapes and sizes.
D. initially form on the lower trunk.

A. are identical in their development.

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the:

A. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion
B. type of material used to manufacture the device.
C. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself.
D. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion.

A. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion

Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins:

A. cause high fever.
B. have a slow onset of symptoms.
C. cause skin blistering.
D. are not contagious.

D. are not contagious.

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to:

A. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues
B. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells.
C. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.
D. become thick and spontaneously clot.

A. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues

When introduced into the body, ricin causes:

A. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure
B. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis.
C. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction.
D. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain.

A. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds?

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Phosgene oxime
C. Hydrogen cyanide
D. Organophosphates

C. Hydrogen cyanide

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent?

A. Chlorine
B. Phosgene
C. Lewisite
D. Soman

D. Soman

Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is correct?

A. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.
B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
C. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits.
D. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile.

B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct?

A. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates.
B. Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form.
C. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.
D. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate.

B. Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form.