Health and Illness Exam 2

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82 Terms

1
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After a femoral-popliteal bypass, which pulse would be most useful in assessing postoperative perfusion?

dorsalis pedis

2
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Discharge teaching with arterial disease or Raynaud's should include:

Keeping the heat up so the environment is warm

3
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With peripheral arterial disease, leg pain during rest can be reduced by:

lowering the limb so it is dependent

4
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The nurse sees bilateral ankle edema on a client diagnosed with PVD. The nurse knows this is the result of:

increased venous pressure

5
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Which laboratory level is a common finding with peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?

High serum lipids

6
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Which finding in a client with a history of smoking and complaints of claudication during exercise requires evaluation?

Abnormal ankle-brachial index

7
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Discharge teaching for a client with venous insufficiency should include all of the following:

Avoid prolonged sitting and standing, wear compression (TED) hose during the day, and avoid crossing your legs

8
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A client with venous insufficiency should NEVER

dangle your feet to decrease edema

9
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The nurse is unable to palpate the right foot pulse in a client. What is the next best action?

Use a doppler device

10
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Teaching for a client discharging with arterial vascular disease includes all the following:

stop smoking, avoid caffeine, and maintain healthy lipid levels.

11
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A client discharging with arterial vascular disease should NEVER

elevate their feet above their heart to promote venous return

12
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Your client reportedly has a venous ulcer. Upon assessment, you would expect to find:

brown pigmentation around the ankle

13
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When treating atrial fibrillation (a-fib) with Coumadin, the client's PT lab needs to be about 2 times the client's baseline PT and have an INR between 3-4. True or False?

True

14
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Dietary changes are not enough to prevent the continued development of atherosclerosis. Nurses much teach clients to ask for and closely monitor this laboratory level to prevent arterial disease?

Lipids should be closely monitored because high LDL causes plaque buildup in arteries.

15
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Explain in a couple sentences why aspirin (ASA) is given to someone with NEW onset of chest pain?

It inhibits platelet aggregation. This helps reduce clot formation in the coronary arteries and limits myocardial damage if infarction is expected.

16
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Which lab would be most helpful in determining the cause of a client's chest pain?

Troponin I

17
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Signs and symptoms of decreased perfusion would include: decreased urine output, restlessness, hypotension, dizziness, shortness of air, and decreased capillary refill. True or False?

True

18
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Stable or unstable angina? Chest pain or discomfort that resolves with rest

Stable

19
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Stable or unstable angina? Lasting less than 15 minutes

Stable

20
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Stable or unstable angina? Pain/discomfort relieved by nitroglycerin tablets

Stable

21
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Stable or unstable angina? Infrequent pain

Stable

22
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Stable or unstable angina? Dizziness

Unstable

23
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Stable or unstable angina? Diaphoresis

Unstable

24
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Stable or unstable angina? Anxiety

Unstable

25
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Stable or unstable angina? Lasting 30 minutes or more

Unstable

26
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Stable or unstable angina? Nausea/vomiting

Unstable

27
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Stable or unstable angina? Chest pain with extorsion and at rest

Unstable

28
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Stable or unstable angina? Shortness of air

Unstable

29
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For a client being anticoagulated on Coumadin, which of the following labs will the nurse follow MOST closely?

PT/INR

30
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Which of the following does NOT contribute to causing a regular sinus tachycardia?

atrial fibrillation

31
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What contributes to causing a regular sinus tachycardia?

anxiety, hyperthermia, hypoxia

32
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Calling a rapid response team would be appropriate for the all the following conditions EXCEPT?

Peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

33
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Why is aspirin given to a client suspected to have an myocardial infarction (MI)?

because aspirin is an antiplatelet

34
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Risks for atherosclerotic plaque that causes coronary artery disease includes:

hypertension, diabetes, obesity

35
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Risks for atherosclerotic plaque that causes coronary artery disease includes all of the following EXCEPT:

healthy diet

36
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To relieve pain caused by peripheral arterial disease (PAD), what would the nurse instruct the patient to do?

dangle the extremity

37
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Compression stockings, SCDs, and extremity elevation are all interventions for which disease process?

venous insufficiency

38
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Stable angina is characterized by which of the following?

resolves quickly with rest

39
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the use of oxygen for a client experiencing chest pain is indicated for which of the following signs or symptoms?

hypoxemia

40
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which of the following conditions can cause sinus bradycardia?

hypothermia

41
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which of the following is an irregular rhythm?

atrial fibrillation

42
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IV certified nurses treat any complications for which of the following IV lines?

both PICC and central lines

43
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Sudden onset of dyspnea, sharp chest pain, and confusion is associated with what event/s?

Myocardial Infarction or Pulmonary Emboli

44
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Nurses should stop a Heparin IV drip under which of the following circumstances?

all the options are correct

45
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Labs associated with Heparin are:

aPTT

46
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Signs and symptoms of an arterial clot would include all the following:

pulselessness, pain, paresthesia

47
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Signs and symptoms of an arterial clot would include all the following EXCEPT:

petechiae

48
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Your client has weak or absent pulses. What is most likely the cause?

peripheral arterial disease

49
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lesions or wounds at the ends of toes indicates:

poor arterial perfusion

50
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Poor venous return places the client at risk for:

edema, stasis dermatitis, venous stasis ulcers

51
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You know your client might be bleeding based on all of the following signs or symptoms:

hematuria, petechiae, change in LOC

52
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You know your client might be bleeding based on all of the following signs or symptoms EXCEPT: 

paresthesia

53
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Interventions for clients with atrial fibrillation can include all the following EXCEPT:

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

54
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Interventions for clients with atrial fibrillation can include all the following:

cardioversion, antiarrhythmic medication, anticoagulation

55
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You think your client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Your client has all of the following assessment findings:

swelling, pain, redness

56
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You think your client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Your client has all of the following assessment findings EXCEPT:

pulselessness

57
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Your client has chest pain, dyspnea, a history of smoking and hypercholesterolemia. Your interventions should rule out:

Myocardial Infarction

58
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Chest pain at rest is unstable angina. T or F?

True

59
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Jaw pain radiating to the left arm is a sign of stable angina. T or F?

False

60
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Chest pain lasting less than 15 minutes is stable angina. T or F?

True

61
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Chest pain or discomfort occurring without cause is unstable angina. T or F?

True

62
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Chest pain that subsides with rest is unstable angina. T or F?

False

63
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Venous stasis, vessel wall injury, hypercoagulability are also referred to as:

Virchow's Triad

64
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Nursing care for clients with dysrhythmias include:

monitor activity tolerance and perfusion, monitor trends in cardiac enzymes and electrolytes, assess VS q 4hrs and patient's response to their medication

65
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Your client has a slow heart rate. All of the following can be done to treat your client EXCEPT?

cardioversion

66
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Your client has a slow heart rate. All of the following can be done to treat your client:

fluid bolus, atropine, transcutaneous or transvenous pacemaker

67
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Which of the following symptoms are associated with a sinus bradycardia?

dizziness, hypotension, change in LOC

68
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Which of the following symptoms are NOT associated with a sinus bradycardia?

increased urine output

69
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Venous insufficiency is primarily caused by dyslipidemia and the formation of atherosclerosis. T or F?

False

70
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Which of the following is a common symptom of Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?

Palpitations

71
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Which of the following is the first-line treatment for stable SVT?

Adenosine

72
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Which of the following ECG findings is characteristic of Atrial Flutter?

Sawtooth pattern of P waves

73
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Which of the following can be a symptom of Crohn's disease?

All of the above

74
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Which of the following is a key difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease?

Ulcerative colitis affects only the colon, while Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract.

75
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Which of the following is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease?

Colectomy

76
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Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease?

Ulcerative colitis

77
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Which of the following is a lifestyle modification that can help manage inflammatory bowel disease?

Quitting smoking

78
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Which of the following is a complication of Crohn's disease?

Malnutrition

79
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Which of the following medications is used to treat inflammation in inflammatory bowel disease?

Corticosteroids

80
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Which of the following diagnostic tests is commonly used to diagnose ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease?

Endoscopy

81
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Which of the following is a risk factor for inflammatory bowel disease?

Smoking

82
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Which of the following is a common symptom of ulcerative colitis?

 Rectal bleeding