ATPL (Philippines) - Radiotelephony 3

1. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...''?

A) The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.

B) Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.

C) The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

B) Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.

2. What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

A) Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

B) Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.

C) Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.

A) Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.

3. When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that

A) ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

B) ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.

C) the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.

C) the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.

4. What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?

A) Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

B) Read back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

C) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.

A) Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.

5. Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)

A) Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

B) Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

C) Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.

A) Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

6. On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control:CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the

A) requested enroute altitude.

B) departure control frequency.

C) destination airport and route.

C) destination airport and route.

7. When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?

A) When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

B) Any time an emergency occurs.

C) When priority has been given.

C) When priority has been given.

8. Which information is always given in an abbreviated clearance?

A) Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

B) SID or transition name and altitude to maintain.

C) Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

C) Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.

9. If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

A) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.

B) Approach control services.

C) Airport Advisory Service.

C) Airport Advisory Service.

10. Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?

A) Airport advisories.

B) All functions of approach control.

C) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.

A) Airport advisories.

11. What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

A) Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.

B) Advise departure control upon initial contact.

C) Enter 'No DP' in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

C) Enter 'No DP' in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

12. During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?

A) Upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon establishing cruise climb on a straight out departure.

B) When advised by the tower.

C) Before penetrating the clouds.

B) When advised by the tower.

13. During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound.'' The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

A) 40° to the right of the airplane's nose.

B) 20° to the right of the airplane's nose.

C) Straight ahead.

A) 40° to the right of the airplane's nose.

14. What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation'' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?

A) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.

B) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

C) Radar service is terminated.

A) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.

15. What does the ATC term "Radar Contact'' signify?

A) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

B) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

C) You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

B) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

16. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This phrase means that

A) you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

B) you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

C) radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.

B) you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.

17. Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

A) DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches.

B) Contact and visual approaches.

C) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.

C) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.

18. Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?

A) Special VFR to VFR Over the Top.

B) To VFR on Top.

C) VFR Over the Top.

B) To VFR on Top.

19. Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?

A) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.

B) Entering instrument meteorological conditions.

C) Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

A) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.

20. A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET'' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

A) vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

B) climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.

C) use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

A) vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

21. An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED...'' will always contain the name

A) and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.

B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

C) of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

22. How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?

A) The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.

B) You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.

C) Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

C) Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

23. For which speed variation should you notify ATC?

A) When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots.

B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.

C) Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.

B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.

24. For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

A) Fixes selected to define the route.

B) There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.

C) At the changeover points.

A) Fixes selected to define the route.

25. When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?

A) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.

B) Any time.

C) Only if an emergency occurs.

A) Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.

26. What does declaring "minimum fuel'' to ATC imply?

A) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

B) Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.

C) Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.

A) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

27. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

A) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

B) wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.

C) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration

A) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

28. When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?

A) When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

B) Only when ATC requests Mode C.

C) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.

C) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.