Challege Questions Mosby's

Which of the following involves interactions between an incident photon and an atomic nucleus?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

d) Pair production

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions does not occur in diagnostic radiography?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

d) Pair production

Which of the following is responsible for creating the condition for contrast on the image?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

a) Photoelectric interaction

Which of the following produces scatter as a result of vibration of orbital electrons?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

c) Coherent scatter

Which of the following produces scatter radiation that exits the patient and may fog the image?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

b) Compton interaction

Which of the following results in total absorption of an incident x-ray photon?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

a) Photoelectric interaction

Which of the following is the only photon-tissue interaction that does not result in ionizing radiation?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

c) Coherent scatter

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions primarily involves K-shell electrons?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

a) Photoelectric interactions

Which of the following primarily involves loosely bound outer-shell electrons?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

b) Compton interactions

Which of the following results in the production of a photoelectron that is. ejected from the atom?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

a) Photoelectric interaction

Which of the following photon-tissue interactions necessitates the use of a grid?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

b) Compton interaction

Which of the following interactions may result in occupational exposure for a radiographer?

a) Photoelectric interaction

b) Compton interaction

c) Coherent scatter

d) Pair production

b) Compton interaction

What agency publishes radiation protection standards based on scientific research?

a) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

b) American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)

c) National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)

d) Bureau of Radiological Health (BRH)

c) NCRP

What agency enforces radiation protection standards relating to radioactive material at the federal level?

a) Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

b) International Commission on Radiation Protection (ICRP)

c) National Council of Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP)

d) Bureau of Radiological Health (BRH)

a) NRC

Which of the following is the basis for all radiation protection standards?

a) Nonlinear-nonthreshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

c) Linear-threshold

d) Nonlinear-threshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

Which of the following means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is not directly proportional to the dose received?

a) Nonlinear-nonthreshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

c) Linear-threshold

d) Nonlinear-threshold

a) Nonlinear-nonthreshold

Which of the following means there is no safe level of radiation and the response to the radiation is directly proportional to the dose received?

a) Nonlinear-nonthreshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

c) Linear-threshold

d) Nonlinear-threshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

Which of the following means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are directly proportional to the dose received?

a) Nonlinear-nonthreshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

c) Linear-threshold

d) Nonlinear-threshold

c) Linear-threshold

Which of the following means there is a safe level of radiation for certain effects and those effects are not directional proportional to the dose received when the safe level is exceeded?

a) Nonlinear-nonthreshold

b) Linear-nonthreshold

c) Linear-threshold

d) Nonlinear-threshold

d) Nonlinear-threshold

Effects of radiation where the probability of occurrence, not severity of occurrence, is proportional to the dose are called…

a) Stochastic

b) Deterministic

c) Genetic

d) Somatic

a) Stochastic

Effects of radiation that become more severe as dose increases are called…

a) Stochastic

b) Deterministic

c) Genetic

d) Somatic

b) Deterministic

Which of the following states that each cell has a master molecule that directs all cellular activities and that, if inactivated, results in cellular death?

a) Indirect effect

b) Target theory

c) Direct effect

d) Mutations

b) Target theory

What is the name for changes in genetic code passed on to the next generation?

a) Indirect effect

b) Target theory

c) Direct effect

d) Mutations

d) Mutations

Most of the damage to a cell occurs as a result of…

a) Indirect effect

b) Target theory

c) Direct effect

d) Mutations

a) Indirect effect

Blood count can be depressed with a whole-body dose of…

a) 0.25 Sv

b) 25 Sv

c) 1 Sv

d) 10 Sv

a) 0.25 Sv

The most radiosensitive cells in the body are…

a) Lymphocytes

b) Epithelial cells

c) Nerve cells

d) Muscle cells

a) Lymphocytes

Cells that are least sensitive to radiation exposure include…

a) Ova and sperm

b) Epithelial cells

c) Nerve and muscle cells

d) Blood cells

c) Nerve and muscle cells

Compared with ova in younger and older women, ova in women of reproductive age are…

a) More radiosensitive

b) Less radiosensitive

c) About the same

b) Less radiosensitive

Which of the following is used to survey an area for radiation detection and measurement?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

c) Handheld ionization chamber

Which of the following is accurate as low as 100 µGy_a?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) OSL

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

Which of the follow provides for an instant readout of an individual’s exposure?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) OSL

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

Which of the follow may be used to measure in-air exposures in a fluoroscopic room?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

c) Handheld ionization chamber

What detection device sounds an alarm to indicate the presence of radioactivity?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

Which of the following is accurate as low as 50 µGy_a and must be sent via mail for the readout?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Pocket ionization chamber

a) TLD

Which of the following is a digital monitor that may be used to measure dose in an area?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Pocket ionization chamber

d) Handheld ionization chamber

Which of the following may be used for 3 months at a time?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

a) TLD

Which of the following can be connected to a computer for a dose readout?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) Handheld ionization chamber

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

Which of the following is the most sensitive personnel monitoring device?

a) TLD

b) Digital ionization dosimeter

c) OSL dosimeter

d) Geiger-Mueller detector

c) OSL dosimeter

Lead aprons used in fluoroscopy must be at least…

a) 0.5 mm lead equivalent

b) 0.25 mm lead

c) 0.1 mm lead

d) 0.25 mm lead equivalent

d) 0.25 mm lead equivalent

A readout on the fluoroscopic monitor that indicates air kerma striking the surface of the patient is…

a) mA meter

b) DAP meter

c) ESD meter

d) kVp meter

b) DAP meter

Added tube filtration should be adjusted by the radiographer…

a) To “harden” the x-ray beam

b) To remove the “soft” rays from the x-ray beam

c) To exercise radiation protection

d) Never

d) Never

In many cases, digital fluoroscopy eliminates which of the following?

a) The need for a radiographer

b) Post-procedure “overhead” images

c) Image acquisition

d) Accurate positioning

b) Post-procedure “overhead” images

What device may be used to ensure the consistency of radiographic quality from one exposure to the next?

a) Electronic timer

b) Step-up transformer

c) Automatic exposure control

d) High-frequency generator

c) AEC

What type of x-ray machine used a continually decreasing mA for the shortest times possible?

a) Ionization chamber

b) Portable

c) C-arm

d) Falling load generator

d) Falling load generator

Examples of particulate radiation are…

a) X-rays, gamma rays, and cosmic rays

b) Helium nuclei and beta particles

c) Electrons, protons, and meteorites

d) X-rays and quarks

b) Helium nuclei and beta particles

Electromagnetic induction is the process of causing an electric current to flow in a conductor…

a) When it is placed in contact with another conductor

b) When it is placed in contact with an insulator

c) When it is placed in contact with a superconductor

d) When it is placed in the magnetic field of another conductor

d) When it is placed in the magnetic field of another conductor

The strength of the megnetic fields in a transformer is increased by…

a) Coiling the wires and placing them in adjoining machines

b) Coiling the wires and letting their magnetic fields overlap

c) Keeping the wires very straight, increasing their effectiveness

d) Replacing the wires with diodes

b) Coiling the wires and letting their magnetic fields overlap

The electricity provided to the radiology department operates at…

a) 120 pulses per second

b) 60 pulses per second

c) 110 pulses per second

d) 220 pulses per second

a) 120 pulses per second

A variable transformer that is used to select kVp for the x-ray circuit is the

a) Step-up transformer

b) Autotransformer

c) Step-down transformer

d) Rectifier

b) Autotransformer

Voltage coming to the x-ray machine is kept constant through the use of a(n)…

a) Autotransformer

b) Step-down transformer

c) Rectifier

d) Line voltage compensator

d) Line voltage compensator

What is located in the x-ray circuit between the high-voltage transformer and the x-ray tube?

a) Step-down transformer

b) Rectifier

c) Cathode

d) Timer

b) Rectifier

What device use maximum heat storage ability of the tube to deliver mAs?

a) Anode

b) mA meter

c) Ionization chamber

d) Falling load generator

d) Falling load generator

What type of generator makes breathing techniques difficult to perform?

a) Single-phase

b) Three-phase, six-pulse

c) Three-phase, twelve-pulse

d) Falling load

d) Falling load

The force with which the electron stream passes from cathode to anode is a result of _____ passing through the x-ray tube.

a) Current

b) Kilovoltage

c) Tungsten

d) Heat

b) Kilovoltage

The x-ray emission spectrum consists of…

a) Brems and characteristic rays

b) Discrete spectrum (produced by brems rays) and continuous spectrum (produced by characteristic rays)

c) Discrete spectrum (produced by characteristic rays) and continuous spectrum (produced by brems rays)

d) X-rays and electrons, both part of the electromagnetic spectrum

c) Discrete spectrum (produced by characteristic rays) and continuous spectrum (produced by brems rays)

The primary type of grid used in diagnostic imaging is…

a) Crosshatch

b) Parallel

c) Rhombic

d) Focused

d) Focused

The portion of the image-intensifier tube that converts electron energy to visible light is the…

a) Output phosphor

b) Photocathode

c) Input phosphor

d) Detector element

a) Output phosphor

The portion of the image-intensifier tube that converts visible light to electrons is the…

a) Output phosphor

b) Photocathode

c) Input phosphor

d) Anode

b) Photocathode

The input phosphor of the image-intensifier tube converts…

a) Electron energy to x-ray energy

b) X-rays and heat to visible light

c) X-ray energy to visible light

d) X-ray energy to an electronic image

c) X-ray energy to visible light

Single-phase, full-wave rectification produces…

a) Direct current

b) Pulsating direct current

c) Pulsating direct current with 120 pulses per second

d) Pulsating direct current with 120 pulses per second and 100% ripple

d) Pulsating direct current with 120 pulses per second and 100% ripple

Three-phase, 6-pulse full-wave rectification produces…

a) Direct current with 13% ripple

b) Direct current with 4% ripple

c) Direct current with 100% ripple

d) Alternating current with 13% ripple

a) Direct current with 13% ripple

Three-phase, 12-pulse full wave rectification produces…

a) Direct current with 13% ripple

b) Direct current with 4% ripple

c) Direct current with 100% ripple

d) Alternating current with 13% ripple

b) Direct current with 4% ripple

The increase in average photon energy when using three-phase, 6-pulse equipment compared with single-phase equipment is…

a) 1.35%

b) 41%

c) 1.41%

d) 35%

d) 35%

The increase in average photon energy when using three-phase, 12-pulse equipment compared with single-phase equipment is…

a) 1.35%

b) 41%

c) 1.41%

d) 35%

b) 41%

Programs that deal with the safe and reliable operation of equipment and programs that address all aspects on delivery of radiology services are called, respectively…

a) Quality assurance and quality control

b) Total quality improvement

c) Quality control and quality assurance

d) Total quality management

c) Quality control and quality assurance

An image intensifier’s conversion factor is expressed as the ratio of…

a) Flux gain to minification gain

b) The luminance of the output phosphor to the exposure rate at the input phosphor

c) The exposure rate at the output phosphor to the exposure rate at the input phosphor

d) The size of the input phosphor to the size of the output phosphor

b) The luminance of the output phosphor to the exposure rate at the input phosphor

The collimator must be accurate to a level of…

a) ±4% of SID

b) ±5% of SID

c) ±2% of SID

d) ±10% of SID

c) ±2% of SID

At 100 kVp, the maximum energy of the beam must fall within…

a) ±1 kVp of the control panel setting

b) ±10 kVp of the control panel setting

c) ±2 kVp of the control panel setting

d) ±5 kVp of the control panel setting

d) ±5 kVp of the control panel setting

Exposure linearity must be accurate within…

a) 4

b) 5%

c) 2% of SID

d) 10%

d) 10%

Exposure reproducibility must be accurate within…

a) 4

b) 5%

c) 2% of SID

d) 10%

b) 5%

Fluoroscopy exposure rate may not exceed…

a) 10 mGy_a per minute

b) 100 mGy_a per minute

c) 5 mGy_a per minute

d) 1 mGy_a per minute

b) 100 mGy_a per minute

The test that measures the accuracy of adjacent mA stations is…

a) Exposure reproducibility

b) Spinning top test

c) Pinhole camera

d) Exposure linearity

d) Exposure linearity

The test that measures the accuracy of successive exposures is…

a) Exposure reproducibility

b) Spinning top test

c) Pinhole camera

d) Exposure linearity

a) Exposure reproducibility

The accuracy of the timer must be within…

a) 10% of the time chosen for exposures over 10 ms

b) 5% of the time chosen for exposures over 10 ms

c) 5% of the time chosen for exposures under 10 ms

d) 10% of the time chosen for exposures under 10 ms

b) 5% of the time chosen for exposures over 10 ms

Resolution of the television system may be measured using the following tool(s)…

a) Wire mesh test

b) Line pairs/millimeter resolution tool along with a kVp meter

c) Resolution test pattern

d) Resolution test pattern, wire mesh test, or line pairs/millimeter resolution tool

c) Resolution test pattern

Receptor exposure may be defined as…

a) The amount of remnant radiation striking the image receptor

b) DAP

c) DQE

d) Differences in dark areas on a radiographic image

b) DAP

Visible differences in adjacent structures on a radiographic image describe…

a) Receptor exposure

b) Spatial resolution

c) Signal loss

d) Contrast resolution

d) Contrast resolution

The relationship between kVp and receptor exposure may be described as…

a) Directly proportional

b) Direct, although not proportional

c) Governed by the 15 to 50 rule

d) Controlled by the x-ray tube current

b) Direct, although not proportional

The function of contrast is to…

a) Make the image appear sharper

b) Compensate for uneven anatomic structures

c) Brighten the image

d) Make details visible

b) Make details visible

Which of the following descibes the outcome of using low kVp?

a) High contrast

b) Few gray tones

c) Long-scale contrast

d) Short-scale contrast

e) Low contrast

f) Many gray tones

a) High contrast

b) Few gray tones

d) Short-scale contrast

Differential absorption of the x-ray beam is a function of…

a) Compton interaction

b) Atomic mass of anatomic structures

c) mAs

d) Photoelectric interaction

d) Photoelectric interaction

As the amount of beam filtration is increased…

a) Contrast increases

b) There is no effect on contrast

c) Contrast decreases

d) Contrast increases because the beam is harder

c) Contrast decreases

The portion of contrast that is caused by variations in the anatomy or that is secondary to pathologic changes is called…

a) Radiographic contrast

b) Anatomic contrast

c) Pathologic contrast

d) Subject contrast

d) Subject contrast

Spatial resolution is…

a) Photographic representation of the part being radiographed

b) Controlled by kVp

c) Controlled by mAs

d) Geometric representation of the part being radiographed

d) Geometric representation of the part being radiographed

Optimal spacial resolution may be created using which of the following factors?

a) Large focal spot

b) Narrow pixel pitch

c) Long OID

d) Short SID

b) Narrow pixel pitch

Digital imaging is driven by…

a) kVp

b) mAs

c) Image receptor

d) Total exposure

d) Total exposure

Low signal-to-noise ratio results in what effect on the image?

a) Higher quality

b) No effect on quality

c) Lower quality

c) Lower quality

When

The CR reader scans the IP with a(n)…

a) Infrared light

b) Laser

c) Sonar

d) Visible white light

b) Laser

The smallest exposure change able to be captured by a detector is called…

a) Spatial resolution

b) Exposure latitude

c) Pixel

d) Contrast resolution

d) Contrast resolution

An indicator of the dose level needed to acquire an optimal image is…

a) DQE

b) DAP

c) FOV

d) Dynamic range

b) DAP

The useful image acquistion area of an image receptor is the…

a) Detector element

b) Detector size

c) TFT size

d) Dynamic range

b) Detector size

What allows more anatomic structures to be captured during an exposure?

a) Contrast resolution

b) Spatial resolution

c) Dynamic range

d) MTF

c) Dynamic range

The range of receptor exposure that provides a quality image is called…

a) Detector latitude

b) Exposure latitude

c) Histogram

d) Dynamic range

b) Exposure latitude

Which of the following is a graphical representation of pixel values?

a) Dynamic range

b) Luminance

c) Look-up table

d) Histogram

d) Histogram

The process of assigning a value to each pizel to represent a gray tone is called…

a) Quantization

b) Scintillating

c) Nyquist frequency

d) Sampling

a) Quantization