American Allied Health EKG Technician Certification Exam

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120 Terms

1
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Who developed the first EKG?

William Einthoven

2
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The electrical impulses are delivered to the ventricles by way of the:

Purkinje Fibers

3
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Another name for the S-A node is:

Pacemaker

4
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The presence or development of a blood clot inside a blood vessel is called:

Thrombosis

5
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How many chambers does the heart have?

4

6
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An aneurysm is a sack formed by an out-pocketing of a portion of a(n):

Venous wall & Arterial wall

7
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Stroke volume multiplied by the number of beats per minute is the formula for:

Cardiac output

8
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An agonal rhythm indicates a:

Dying heart

9
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The average number of heart contractions per minute is:

60-100

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Which of the following can be a cause for the hardening of arteries?

Formation of plaque

11
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The first machine used for EKG was called a(n):

String galvanometer

12
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Angina pectoris is a(n):

Ischemia of myocardium and chest pain

13
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In a sinus arrhythmia, the rhythm will be:

irregular

14
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The customary way to identify an inpatient is:

Examining the wristbrand

15
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On EKG paper, one small box represents:

.04 sec and 1 mm

16
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The PR segment represents:

Delay at the AV node

17
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Blood entering the right atrium is:

Deoxygenated

18
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EKG graph paper can be used to measure:

Amplitude, voltage, and time

19
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Which system affects the atria, ventricles, and valves?

Cardiovascular system

20
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Normal adult axillary temperature is:

97.6

21
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AHA is the abbreviation for

American Heart Association

22
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Swelling due to fluid build up in the tissues is called:

Edema

23
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The upper chambers of the heart are called:

Atria

24
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The following are symptoms of decreased cardiac output:

Cold, Clammy skin, Change in color, Dyspnea and fatigue

25
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The bicuspid valve is also called the:

Mitral valve

26
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Tachycardia is:

Faster than 100 beats per minute

27
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The interior lining of the heart is called the:

Endocardium

28
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A Holter monitor is used to diagnose:

Cardiac rhythm & Conduction abnormalities

29
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Three electrolytes that play an important role in cardiac conduction include:

Potassium, Calcium, and Sodium

30
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A 12 lead ECG provides views from which 2 planes?

Frontal and horizontal

31
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What do muscle cells need in order to contract?

Calcium

32
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The normal PRI should measure between:

0.12 to 0.20 sec

33
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Systolic pressure occurs when the ventricles are:

Contracting

34
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The heart rate is influenced by the:

Autonomic nervous system

35
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PVC's originate in the:

ventricles

36
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Disorders(s) related to inadequate blood supply include:

Angina pectoris & MI

37
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The primary pacemaker of the heart is the:

SA node

38
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Patient ductus arteriosus is a:

Congenital disorder

39
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The pericardium is:

c) The double-walled sac that encloses the heart

40
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Where are Beta-1 receptors located?

The heart

41
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Which of the following are the Atrioventricular (AV) valves?

Tricuspid and mitral

42
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The T waves represents:

Ventricular repolarization

43
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Ventricular rate and rhythm are determined by measuring from:

R wave to R wave

44
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The definition of syncope is:

Loss of consciousness

45
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The P wave represents:

Atrial depolarization

46
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Where is lead 1 positive (+) placed?

Left arm

47
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The epicardium is:

The outermost layer of the heart

48
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In first degree heart block, the PRI is:

Greater than 0.2 seconds

49
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Which of the following is considered a prolonged PR interval?

0.24 second

50
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In second-degree AV block with 2:1 conduction, the PR interval:

lengthens

51
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What is responsible for separating the right and left ventricle:

Intraventricular septum

52
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The mediastinum is:

The space between the lungs in the middle of the chest

53
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The function of the AV node is to:

Delay the electrical signal to the Purkinje fibers

54
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Depolarization of ventricles is a:

QRS complex

55
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Depolarization of the atria is a:

P wave

56
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Repolarization of ventricles is a:

T wave

57
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Both depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles is a:

QT Wave

58
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A chaotic electrical activity with waveforms varying in size and shape is a(n):

Ventricular Fibrillation

59
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A regular rate and rhythm at 100-200 beats/minute is a(n):

Ventricular Tachycardia

60
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Complete absence of ventricular electrical activity is a(n):

Asystole

61
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A premature beat with a wide-notched QRS is a(n):

PVC

62
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The correct term that refers to an ectopic site in the atria stimulates a premature contraction before the SA node can act is:

PAC

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The correct term that refers to a rapid abnormal rhythm from an ectopic site in the atria with a rapid onset is:

PAT

64
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The correct term that refers to the atria contracting at an extremely rapid rate of 300 beats/minute is:

Atrial Flutter

65
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The correct term that refers to the atrial activity as rapid and chaotic is:

Atrial Fibrillation

66
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A dysrhythmia is best defined as:

An alteration in the normal heart rhythm

67
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Which of the following terms means a condition in which the heart is unable to pump out all of the blood that is returned to it, causing a backing up of blood in the vein leading to the heart?

Congestive Heart Failure

68
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A sinus rhythm at a rate of 48 would be considered:

Bradycardia

69
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Which structures maintain the control of blood flowing through the heart?

Valves

70
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Impulses from the AV node go through the __ to the right and left bundle branches.

Bundle of His

71
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When a site speeds up and takes over as the pacemaker, it is referred to as:

Ectopic pacemaker

72
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There are five small squares between the bold lines on the graph paper. What is the length of time it takes to cross one small square?

0.04 seconds

73
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A junctional tachycardia is:

Regular

74
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Rhythms that originate in the AV junction include:

PJC, Accelerated junctional rhythm, Junctional tachycardia

75
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The QRS measurement for a PAC should be:

Less than 0.12 seconds

76
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What is the rate range for junctional tachycardia?

100-180

77
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The atrial rate in atrial fibrillation is:

More than 350 bpm

78
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Wenckebach is characterized by increasingly long PRI's followed by a P wave.

Blocked

79
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Which of the following small waves sometimes appears between the T wave and the P wave?

U wave

80
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Normally a complete ECG consists of how many leads?

12

81
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When you have more than one premature beat that appears identical, they are called:

Unifocal

82
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When you have more than one premature beat that are of a different kind, they are called:

Multifocal

83
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The segment representing the period of time from the end of the P wave to the onset of the QRS complex is the:

P-R segment

84
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Electrode contact can be improved by:

Shaving the hair, Cleaning or drying the skin, and Using a contact medium

85
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Defibrillation is a:

Shock to the heart to stop the heart and Shock to the heart to change the hearts rhythm

86
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Artifact can be caused by:

Alternating current, Patient movement, Poorly applied or dirty sensors

87
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A straight line on the ECG strip produced by the stylus when the EKG isn't connected to the patient is called:

Isoelectric line

88
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A QRS measurement of less than _ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.

0.12

89
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When the atria and ventricles are seen to be beating independently it is called:

Third-degree heart block

90
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The single most important thing you can do to prevent the spread of infection is:

Wash your hands

91
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A regular rhythm with a normal rate is a:

Normal Sinus Rhythm

92
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A rhythm with regular P-P and R-R intervals, a normal P wave before each QRS complex, and a rate below 60 beats per minute would most likely be:

Sinus Bradycardia

93
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A rhythm that is normal in every respect with a rate of 101-180 beats per minute is called:

Sinus Tachycardia

94
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In atrial tachycardia, the atrial rate can be as low as:

100-150 bpm

95
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A regular rhythm with a rate of 100-250 beats per minute would most likely be:

Atrial Tachycardia

96
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The inherent rate for the SA node is:

60-100 bpm

97
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The inherent rate for the AV junction is:

40-60 bpm

98
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Leads II, III AVF view which portion of the heart?

Inferior

99
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Leads V1 and V2 view which portion of the heart?

Septal

100
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Leads V3 and V4 view which portion of the heart?

Anterior