Drone Exam Large Set

What might a good site survey done days in advance include?
A. A look at traffic patterns of vehicles that may be endangered by your operation
B. A look at non-participatory bystanders who may be unaware, distracted, or afraid of what you are doing
C. Both A and B

C. Both A and B

There’s a local air show this weekend, and a NOTAM has been issued to establish a no-fly zone for the area of your planned flight mission. When would you be allowed to fly?
A. After all aircraft in the air show have landed and the event has concluded
B. With prior approval from the event organizer
C. As per the instructions in the NOTAM

C. As per the instructions in the NOTAM

You have questions about the possible effects of flying while using over-the-counter medications. Which resource would you want to consult?
A. Pilot Operating Handbook
B. Aeronautical Information Manual
C. Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

C. Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

A person flies their drone to take aerial photos of a property to help a friend sell their house. How is this operation classified?
A. Recreational, because you are not being paid directly
B. Commercial / Non-recreational (Part 107), because the flight supports a business purpose
C. Exempt operation, because the flight is outdoors on private property

B. Commercial / Non-recreational (Part 107), because the flight supports a business purpose.

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport?
A. 47°02'N - 116°11'W
B. 47°33'N - 116°11'W
C. 47°32'N - 116°41'W

B. 47°33'N - 116°11'W

What may be used to assist compliance with Part 107 see-and-avoid requirements?
A. First-person view camera
B. Remote PIC diligence
C. Binoculars

B. Remote PIC diligence

Getting into a state of over-breathing where you're exhaling more than you inhale is known as:
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoventilation
C. Hypoxemia

A. Hyperventilation

While monitoring the Cooperstown CTAF you hear an aircraft announce that they are midfield left downwind to RWY 13. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway?
A. East
B. South
C. West

A. East

What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
A. 1,534 feet AGL
B. 1,534 feet MSL
C. 1,500 feet MSL

B. 1,534 feet MSL

For Category 3 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft must not cause injury equivalent to or greater than the impact of:
A. 25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy
B. 5 foot-pounds of kinetic energy
C. 11 foot-pounds of kinetic energy

A. 25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy

How often must you re-register aircraft commercially at $5 per UAV?
A. Every year
B. Every 24 months
C. Every 3 years

C. Every 3 years

If no magenta dashed or fuzzy lines appear around an airport on a sectional chart, what is the typical starting altitude for Class E airspace in that area?
A. Surface level
B. 700 ft AGL
C. 1,200 ft AGL

C. 1,200 ft AGL

At Coeur D’Alene which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
A. 122.05 MHz
B. 135.075 MHz
C. 122.8 MHz

C. 122.8 MHz

When operated under Part 107, a UA that weighs less than 0.55 pounds (250 grams) must comply with Remote ID requirements.
A. TRUE
B. Only if the UA is flown in an FRIA
C. FALSE

A. TRUE

For Category 2 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft:
A. May only be operated in a closed or restricted-access site
B. Must not contain any exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin
C. Must be equipped with a siren to alert persons who are not directly involved in the operation

B. Must not contain any exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin

What may be used to assist compliance with being able to maintain situational awareness as a remote PIC?
A. First-person view camera
B. Remote PIC diligence
C. Binoculars

C. Binoculars

What is the minimum altitude you can fly in the quadrangle surrounding Buckeye Airport (BXK) in order to clear all obstacles in that quadrangle?
A. 3,400 ft. AGL
B. 3,500 ft. AGL
C. 3,500 ft. MSL

C. 3,500 ft. MSL

While you're flying your sUAS, icing can form if there's:
A. Small temperature/dewpoint spread
B. Stratiform clouds
C. Visible moisture

C. Visible moisture

What’s the lower altitude limit of Class E airspace at Statesboro Bulloch County Airport (TBR)?
A. 887 ft. MSL
B. 700 ft. MSL
C. 1,200 ft. MSL

A. 887 ft. MSL

In accordance with 14 CFR Part 107, except when within a 400’ radius of a structure, at what maximum altitude can you operate sUAS?
A. 500 feet AGL
B. 400 feet AGL
C. 600 feet AGL

B. 400 feet AGL

The Part 107 regulations apply to:
A. Recreational unmanned aircraft operations
B. Both civil and public unmanned aircraft operations
C. Civil unmanned aircraft operations

C. Civil unmanned aircraft operations

According to 14 CFR Part 48, when would a small unmanned aircraft owner not be permitted to register it?
A. If the owner does not have a valid United States driver's license
B. All persons must register their small UA
C. If the owner is less than 13 years of age

C. If the owner is less than 13 years of age

Breathing at too slow or too shallow of a rate results in an increased amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. This is known as:
A. Hyperventilation
B. Hypoxemia
C. Hypoventilation

C. Hypoventilation

Where should you look to get additional information on R-2305?
A. Chart Supplements (formerly Airport/Facility Directory)
B. By communicating with the nearest ATC or airport manager
C. On the Sectional Chart

C. On the Sectional Chart

Which visual illusion is at play when a pilot overestimates their altitude and descent angle causing them to land short of the runway or crash into the ground?
A. Size-Distance Illusion
B. Fascination (Fixation)
C. Black Hole Illusion

A. Size-Distance Illusion

You volunteer to use your drone to take aerial photos of a high school football game for the school’s website. Under FAA regulations, how is this operation classified?
A. Public aircraft operation
B. Recreational
C. Non-recreational (Part 107)

C. Non-recreational (Part 107)

Which is the final step of the DECIDE Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
A. Eliminate
B. Estimate
C. Evaluate

C. Evaluate

The use of which technology is prohibited under Part 107 unless authorized by the FAA?
A. Air Traffic Control (ATC) transponders
B. ATC transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out
C. Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out

B. ATC transponders and Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
A. When moist, unstable air crosses a mountain barrier
B. Following frontal passage when cumulus clouds form
C. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

C. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence

What action should a pilot take when operating in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A. Obtain clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA
B. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA
C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by:
A. The Chart Supplements U.S.
B. Notice to Airmen (NOTAMs)
C. Terminal Area Chart (TAC)

A. The Chart Supplements U.S.

When can a Remote Pilot-in-Command deviate from the Part 107 rules to go into Class C airspace?
A. When an in-flight emergency occurs
B. After requesting permission from the FAA
C. After receiving radio permission from the Class C airport ATC tower

A. When an in-flight emergency occurs

Which category of operation over people is allowed for operations conducted over a closed or restricted access site?
A. Category 4
B. Category 2
C. Category 3

C. Category 3

At night, when you're scanning the sky in 30° increments, you shouldn't pause for more than _____ seconds to avoid night vision limitations.
A. 2-3
B. 5-7
C. 10-15

A. 2-3

What is the maximum allowable speed of a UAV in Class B airspace?
A. 100 mph or 87 knots
B. 120 mph or 104 knots
C. 80 mph or 70 knots

A. 100 mph or 87 knots

If advice is needed concerning possible flight with an illness, a pilot should contact:
A. An Aviation Medical Examiner
B. Air Traffic Control
C. Flight Service

A. An Aviation Medical Examiner

You have been hired by a farmer to use your small UA to inspect his crops. The area that you are to survey is in the Devil's Lake West MOA, east of area 2. How would you find out if the MOA is active?
A. Refer to the Sectional Chart legend on the border of the chart
B. Contact Flight Service
C. Locate the information in the Small UAS database

A. Refer to the Sectional Chart legend on the border of the chart

What is the control tower frequency for Addison Airport?
A. 126.0 MHz
B. 118.3 MHz
C. 122.8 MHz

A. 126.0 MHz

A NOTAM has been issued establishing a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) in your area. Under what conditions are you permitted to fly your small UAS inside the restricted area?
A. Only if you are directly participating in the event/activity and have authorization from the controlling agency or FAA
B. If you have notified the nearest airport
C. If the weather conditions are favorable

A. Only if you are directly participating in the event/activity and have authorization from the controlling agency or FAA

The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from:
A. 180° true at 4 knots
B. 180° magnetic at 4 knots
C. 018° true at 40 knots

A. 180° true at 4 knots

Where should you look to find out whether or not you're allowed to operate in R-2531?
A. On the Sectional Chart
B. In the Chart Supplement
C. In the Small UAS database

A. On the Sectional Chart

It’s 40 minutes until official sunrise. How long must you wait to operate your unmanned aircraft if you don’t have anti-collision lighting?
A. 40 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. You can operate immediately

A. 40 minutes

Many medications affect the body in ways contrary to safety. Which set of regulations covers the rules regarding medications for pilots?
A. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
B. American Medical Association (AMA)
C. Airplane Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA)

A. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)

The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is:
A. Nimbostratus
B. Cumulonimbus
C. Scattered cumulus

B. Cumulonimbus

Safety is an important element for a remote pilot to consider prior to operating an unmanned aircraft system. To prevent the final "link" in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider which methodology?
A. Risk Management
B. Air Traffic Control procedures
C. Weight and balance analysis

A. Risk Management

How long do you have to update your FAADroneZone account after changes to your registration information?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days

B. 14 days

Who would a Remote Pilot in Command contact to "CHECK NOTAMS" as it is noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon?
A. NTSB office
B. FAA district office
C. Flight Service

C. Flight Service

What's the minimum altitude / lowest elevation of the area depicted by the blue line labeled V71?
A. 700 ft. AGL
B. 1,200 ft. AGL
C. 3,500 ft. AGL

B. 1,200 ft. AGL

You have received an outlook briefing from Flight Service indicating you can expect a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?
A. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds
B. Strong turbulence, excellent visibility, and clear skies
C. Thunderstorms, hail, and strong surface winds

A. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds

You're hired to inspect a group of structures that are under construction 9 statute miles (SM) south of Norfolk Intl airport. What's the highest you're allowed to fly if inspecting the topmost part of the tower?
A. 853 ft. AGL
B. 400 ft. AGL
C. 1,253 ft. AGL

A. 853 ft. AGL

Radiation fog will most likely form when:
A. There is warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights
B. Moist, tropical air moves over cold, offshore water
C. Cold air moves over much warmer water

A. There is warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights

When requesting a waiver, the required documents should be presented to the FAA at least how many days prior to the planned operation?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days

C. 90 days

If the tower at Dallas Executive airport (RBD) is not in operation, which radio frequency should an sUAS pilot tune into to listen to local aircraft chatter?
A. 127.25 MHz
B. 126.35 MHz
C. 122.95 MHz

A. 127.25 MHz

The gray line labeled VR1667, VR1617, VR1638, and VR1668 indicates:
A. Military training routes
B. Military operating areas
C. Designated aircraft approach paths

A. Military training routes

Which thunderstorm lifecycle stage is mostly characterized by downdrafts?
A. Cumulus
B. Dissipating
C. Mature

B. Dissipating

What is the floor of Class B airspace at Ft. Worth Alliance (AFW) airport?
A. At the surface
B. 3000 ft. MSL
C. 4000 ft. MSL

A. At the surface

What notification is used to announce a no-flight zone for the movement of the President, a foreign dignitary, or other VIPs?
A. CTAF
B. TFR
C. UNICOM

B. TFR

For operations conducted in Category 1, 2, and 4, sustained flight over an open-air assembly is restricted to small unmanned aircraft that:
A. Are operated at FAA-recognized identification areas (FRIAs)
B. Weigh more than 55 pounds
C. Meet Part 89 Remote ID requirements

C. Meet Part 89 Remote ID requirements

What must be displayed on the UAV during a flight mission?
A. FCC registration number
B. Registration number
C. Owner name

B. Registration number

What is the definition of CTAF?
A. The frequency you tune into to get information from Aeronautical Advisory Stations (UNICOM)
B. The standard radio frequency that the majority of towered airports use in the U.S.
C. The air-to-air communication system for pilots to communicate with each other

C. The air-to-air communication system for pilots to communicate with each other

What is normally the vertical limit of Class C airspace directly overlying the airport?
A. 1,000 feet above the airport elevation
B. 3,000 feet above the airport elevation
C. 4,000 feet above the airport elevation

C. 4,000 feet above the airport elevation

If you fly your drone over your property to take video of livestock and post it to a non-monetized YouTube channel, what type of operation is this?
A. Recreational
B. Non-recreational (Part 107)
C. The operation is exempt from drone rules because it took place on private property

A. Recreational

To avoid a possible collision with a manned airplane, you estimate that your small UA climbed to an altitude greater than 600 feet AGL. To whom must you report the deviation?
A. Air Traffic Control
B. The National Transportation Safety Board
C. The Federal Aviation Administration upon request

C. The Federal Aviation Administration upon request

What does AGL stand for?
A. Above Ground Level
B. Above Geographic Latitude
C. Aviation Ground Limit

A. Above Ground Level

What does MSL stand for?
A. Mean Sea Level
B. Maximum Surface Level
C. Mean Sky Level

A. Mean Sea Level

If Class E airspace begins at 700 ft. AGL and the airport elevation is 187 ft. MSL, what is the Class E floor in MSL?
A. 513 ft. MSL
B. 700 ft. MSL
C. 887 ft. MSL

C. 887 ft. MSL

What does a four-digit Military Training Route number generally indicate?
A. The route is flown at 1,500 ft. AGL and below
B. The route is flown entirely above 1,500 ft. AGL
C. The route is a Military Operations Area

A. The route is flown at 1,500 ft. AGL and below

What does a three-digit Military Training Route number generally indicate?
A. The route has at least one segment above 1,500 ft. AGL
B. The route is flown entirely below 1,500 ft. AGL
C. The route is a permanent restricted area

A. The route has at least one segment above 1,500 ft. AGL

What is the purpose of a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A. To separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic
B. To prohibit all civilian aircraft from entering the area
C. To establish a permanent no-fly zone

A. To separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic

What is the minimum altitude of a Victor Airway such as V71?
A. 700 ft. AGL
B. 1,200 ft. AGL
C. 3,500 ft. AGL

B. 1,200 ft. AGL

What is the maximum altitude of a Victor Airway?
A. 10,000 ft. MSL
B. 18,000 ft. MSL
C. 24,000 ft. MSL

B. 18,000 ft. MSL

What does the Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) represent on a sectional chart?
A. The minimum altitude needed to clear all terrain and obstructions in that quadrangle
B. The maximum altitude permitted for aircraft in that quadrangle
C. The elevation of the nearest airport

A. The minimum altitude needed to clear all terrain and obstructions in that quadrangle

What is the MEF around Buckeye Airport (BXK) in the referenced quadrangle?
A. 3,400 ft. AGL
B. 3,500 ft. AGL
C. 3,500 ft. MSL

C. 3,500 ft. MSL

What is CTAF primarily used for?
A. Air-to-air communication between pilots operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower
B. Communication between pilots and the FAA only
C. Communication between pilots and military aircraft only

A. Air-to-air communication between pilots operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower

Where is the CTAF frequency generally shown in relation to the C/circle symbol on a sectional chart?
A. Immediately before the C/circle symbol
B. Immediately after the CT designation
C. Only in the Chart Supplement

A. Immediately before the C/circle symbol

Where is the control tower frequency generally shown in relation to the CT designation on a sectional chart?
A. To the left of the airport elevation
B. To the right of the CT designation
C. Inside the C/circle symbol

B. To the right of the CT designation

What is the difference between AGL and MSL?
A. AGL is measured from the ground; MSL is measured from mean sea level
B. AGL is measured from mean sea level; MSL is measured from the ground
C. They are two different names for the same altitude reference

A. AGL is measured from the ground; MSL is measured from mean sea level

What is a temperature inversion?
A. A condition where temperature decreases as altitude increases
B. A condition where temperature increases as altitude increases
C. A condition where pressure increases as altitude increases

B. A condition where temperature increases as altitude increases

What type of air is associated with a temperature inversion?
A. Stable air
B. Highly unstable air
C. Turbulent air only

A. Stable air

What conditions favor radiation fog?
A. Clear skies, light winds, moist air, and rapid ground cooling
B. Strong winds and heavy thunderstorms
C. Warm, dry air moving rapidly over mountains

A. Clear skies, light winds, moist air, and rapid ground cooling

What is hyperventilation?
A. Excessive breathing that can cause carbon dioxide levels in the blood to decrease
B. Breathing too slowly and retaining carbon dioxide
C. A complete loss of consciousness

A. Excessive breathing that can cause carbon dioxide levels in the blood to decrease

What is hypoventilation?
A. Breathing too slowly or too shallowly, resulting in increased carbon dioxide in the blood
B. Breathing too rapidly and losing too much carbon dioxide
C. A lack of oxygen caused exclusively by high altitude

A. Breathing too slowly or too shallowly, resulting in increased carbon dioxide in the blood

What is hypoxemia?
A. Abnormally low oxygen level in the blood
B. Excessively high carbon dioxide level in the blood
C. Excessive breathing caused by anxiety

A. Abnormally low oxygen level in the blood

What resource discusses aeromedical factors and the effects of medications on flying?
A. Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge
B. Chart Supplement U.S.
C. Sectional Chart

A. Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

What is a Military Training Route (MTR)?
A. A route used by the military for low-altitude, high-speed flight training
B. A permanent restricted area for military aircraft
C. A civilian airway controlled by ATC

A. A route used by the military for low-altitude, high-speed flight training

What does "VR" followed by a number indicate on a sectional chart?
A. A VFR Military Training Route
B. A Victor Airway
C. A VFR Restricted Area

A. A VFR Military Training Route

What does "IR" followed by a number indicate on a sectional chart?
A. An IFR Military Training Route
B. An Instrument Restricted Area
C. An International Route

A. An IFR Military Training Route

What is the typical vertical extent of the inner core of Class C airspace?
A. Surface to 4,000 feet above airport elevation
B. 1,200 to 3,000 feet above airport elevation
C. Surface to 1,000 feet above airport elevation

A. Surface to 4,000 feet above airport elevation

What is the typical radius of the inner core of Class C airspace?
A. 5 nautical miles
B. 10 nautical miles
C. 20 nautical miles

A. 5 nautical miles

What is the typical radius of the outer shelf of Class C airspace?
A. 5 nautical miles
B. 10 nautical miles
C. 15 nautical miles

B. 10 nautical miles

What is the typical lower limit of the Class C outer shelf?
A. 700 feet AGL
B. 1,200 feet AGL
C. 4,000 feet AGL

B. 1,200 feet AGL

What is a FRIA?
A. An FAA-recognized identification area where aircraft without Remote ID may operate under applicable rules
B. A Federal Restricted International Airspace area
C. A Flight Rules Identification Authorization

A. An FAA-recognized identification area where aircraft without Remote ID may operate under applicable rules

What is the VLOS limitation for a drone equipped with an aftermarket Remote ID broadcast module?
A. It must be operated within visual line of sight
B. It may automatically operate beyond visual line of sight
C. It may only operate inside Class G airspace

A. It must be operated within visual line of sight

What is the minimum age to register a small unmanned aircraft under Part 48?
A. 13 years old
B. 16 years old
C. 18 years old

A. 13 years old

What is the registration period for a drone registration?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years

B. 3 years

What must a Remote PIC use for the actual see-and-avoid requirement?
A. Natural, unaided eyesight, with corrective lenses such as glasses or contacts if needed
B. Binoculars
C. An FPV camera only

A. Natural, unaided eyesight, with corrective lenses such as glasses or contacts if needed

Can binoculars assist with general situational awareness?
A. Yes, but they cannot replace the Remote PIC's unaided eyesight for see-and-avoid
B. No, binoculars are prohibited for all drone operations
C. Yes, and they completely satisfy the see-and-avoid requirement

A. Yes, but they cannot replace the Remote PIC's unaided eyesight for see-and-avoid

What is the final step of the DECIDE model?
A. Eliminate
B. Estimate
C. Evaluate

C. Evaluate

What methodology is used to prevent the final link in an accident chain?
A. Risk management
B. Visual scanning only
C. Weight and balance

A. Risk management

What is a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)?
A. A temporary restriction on an area of airspace for specified reasons
B. A permanent change to an airport's runway
C. A voluntary recommendation from an airport

A. A temporary restriction on an area of airspace for specified reasons