Multiple Choice

C. A hollow zone of inhibition around the antibiotic disc would mean that the organism is resistant to that antibiotic.

The following are characteristics of a disk diffusion method for antibiotic susceptibility testing EXCEPT:

A. It relies on the inhibition of bacterial growth under standard conditions.

B. Filter paper discs are impregnated with a specific concentration of an antibiotic and are placed in the medium.

C. A hollow zone of inhibition around the antibiotic disc would mean that the organism is resistant to that antibiotic.

D. The culture medium of choice is the Mueller Hinton agar. E. No exception

B. to detect the production of gas by microorganisms.

Purpose/s of Durham's tube.

A. to detect pigment production of microorganisms.

B. to detect the production of gas by microorganisms.

C. To detect turbidity

D. A and B only

E. All of the choices

E. 1,3

The following statements below are achievements attributed to

Louis Pasteur.

1. Demonstrated certain groups of organisms that caused

fermentation of fruits and grains.

2. Discovered anthrax by isolating it in pure culture.

3. Developed chicken cholera and rabies vaccines.

4. Stated that each specific infectious disease is caused by a

specific organism.

5. Developed the first culture technique using a broth.

A. 1,2,3,4,5

B. 1,2,3,4

C. 1,3,4

D. 1,2,5

E. 1,3

B. The 1st and 2nd statements are both false.

Gas vesicles are absent in both Bacteria and Archaea but

present in Eukarya. Organelles are also present in Eukarya.

A. The 1st and 2nd statements are both true.

B. The 1st and 2nd statements are both false.

C. The 1st statement is true, but the 2nd statement is false.

D. The 1st statement is false, but the 2nd statement is true.

E. No exception

The statements below are correctly matched EXCEPT:

(phenotypic characteristics)

A. Antigenic properties - bacterial structures that elicit antibody

production

B. Environmental requirements - what is being incorporated in

an agar so that the bacteria will grow.

C. Macroscopic morphology - colonies

D. Subcellular properties - enzymes

E. No exception

D. B and C only

Which of the following statement/s below is/are correctly

stated?

A. Treponema pallidum is a spiral shaped organism with long

axis that bends when in motion.

B. Leptospira interrogans looks less tightly coiled with sharp

hook like bends.

C. Borrelia burgdorferi is much less tightly coiled which has an

appearance of an extremely long undulating bacillary form.

D. B and C only

E. A, B and C

C. Bacillus anthracis

It is the biggest known pathogenic bacilli

A. Escherichia coli

B. Haemophilus influenzae

C. Bacillus anthracis

D. Bacillus subtilis

E. Neither A, B, C nor D

E. No exception

These are functions of pili EXCEPT:

A. Allows the bacteria to attach to a host cell.

B. Facilitates transfer of DNA from one cell to another.

C. Binds specifically to certain sugars to cause agglutination of

particular cell types.

D. Facilitates gliding motion or slow twitching.

E. No exception

F. A, B and C

Significance of the outer membrane in gram negative bacteria.

A. It gives toxic and pathogenic properties.

B. Phage receptors

C. Selective permeability

D. A and B only

E. B and C only

F. A, B and C

B. Teichoic acids

Its main function is to provide rigidity to the cell wall by attracting

cations such as Mg++ and Na+

A. Peptidoglycan

B. Teichoic acids

C. Mycolic acid

D. Lipid A

E. None of the choices

B. The statement above is false.

The peripheral type of mesosome is responsible for DNA

replication and cell division.

A. The statement above is true.

B. The statement above is false.

D. A and B only

These anaerobic bacteria develop endospores that makes

them highly resistant to adverse conditions.

A. Genus Bacillus

B. Genus Clostridium

C. Genus Listeria

D. A and B only

E. All of the choices

A. Synthesis of proteins and nucleotides

Significance of nitrogen to bacterial growth.

A. Synthesis of proteins and nucleotides

B. 20% of the dry weight of microbial cells

C. pH balance

D. A and C

E. B and C

F. All of the choices

E. 3,4

The following are true of Nucleic acid hybridization.

1. It can occur between one single stranded DNA molecule but

not between 1 single stranded DNA and 1 single stranded RNA

molecule.

2. The hybrid formed should be stable since there is always a

high degree of complementary base pairing between 2 strands.

3. One important application is Polymerase chain reaction.

4. In Molecular Biology, it is used for the detection of a specific

DNA sequence in a mixture of DNA fragments or total cell DNA.

5. The participating population of nucleic acids maybe single

stranded or double stranded.

A. 1,2,3,4,5

B. 1,2,3,4

C. 2,4,5

D. 3,4,5

E. 3,4

C. They catabolize reduced organic molecules acquired

from other organisms.

The statements below best describe autotrophs EXCEPT:

A. They can utilize inorganic carbon source as their sole source

of energy.

B. They can make organic compounds from CO2.

C. They catabolize reduced organic molecules acquired

from other organisms.

D. They are capable of feeding themselves.

E. No exception

A. Causes DNA and protein destruction.

Mechanism of action of Singlet Oxygen towards a bacterium.

A. Causes DNA and protein destruction.

B. Converts hydrogen peroxide to water.

C. Lowers the pH of the microorganism.

D. A and B only

E. A, B and C

D. B and C only

How can facultative anaerobes survive without oxygen?

A. They use antioxidants like Vitamins A and E

B. They utilize fermentation for energy production.

C. They maintain life via aerobic respiration.

D. B and C only

E. A and C only

F. All of the choices

B. Dissociation

Which of the following variation in morphologic type is

macroscopic in nature?

A. Pleomorphism

B. Dissociation

C. cell structure

D. B and C only

E. none of the choices

C. 1,2,4,3,5,6,7

Pour Plate method. Arrange the steps in their correct sequence.

1. Label the petri dish.

2. Prepare the sample by serial dilution.

3. Slowly pour the molten agar into the petri dish.

4. Inoculate 1.0 ml of the sample using sterile pipette.

5. Gently rotate the plate and allow the agar to solidify.

6. Incubate at the required temperature.

7. Count the CFU.

A. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7

B. 2,1,4,3,5,6,7

C. 1,2,4,3,5,6,7

D. 1,2,3,4,6,5,7

E. 1,2,3,5,4,6,7

A. The 1st and 2nd statements are both true.

1. Electrophoresis is the migration of charged particles in a

medium under the influence of an applied electrical field.

2. It is a nucleic acid based molecular analytic method.

A. The 1st and 2nd statements are both true.

B. The 1st and 2nd statements are both false.

C. The 1st statement is true, but the 2nd statement is false.

D. The 1st statement is false, but the 2nd statement is true.

D. Umbonate

The following are margin classifications of a colony EXCEPT:

A. Entire

B. Filamentous

C. Lobate

D. Umbonate

E. Filamentous

E. No exception

The organisms below are parasites EXCEPT:

A. Amoeba

B. Roundworms

C. Flukes

D. Trichomonas vaginalis

E. No exception

C. 1,2,4,3,5

Arrange the following according to the hierarchical

classification system (TAXA):

1. Domains

2. Kingdoms

3. Class

4. Phylum

5. Order

A. 1,2,3,4,5

B. 1,2,4,5,3

C. 1,2,4,3,5

D. 2,1,4,5,3

E. 1,2,5,4,3

B. The 1st and 2nd statements are both false.

1. Species is a collection of bacterial strains that has different

physiologic and genetic features.

2. It can be abbreviated as spp if singular.

A. The 1st and 2nd statements are both true.

B. The 1st and 2nd statements are both false.

C. The 1st statement is true, but the 2nd statement is false.

D. The first statement is false, but the 2nd statement is true.

D. A and B only

General rule for Gram staining: All cocci are gram positive

EXCEPT:

A. Neisseria group

B. Veillonella species

C. Clostridium species

D. A and B only

E. B and C only

F. All of the choices

D. A and B

Purpose of spreading the smear over the middle 1/3 of the

slide.

A. To preserve the morphology of the organism

B. To prevent overlapping of the organism

C. To kill the organism

D. A and B

E. A and C

F. A, B and C

D. Deletion

Gross mutations of bacteria may involve any of the following

EXCEPT:

A. Transposition

B. Inversion

C. Duplication

D. Deletion

E. No exception

A. Hfr donors

It is a bacterium with a conjugative factor that is integrated into

the host DNA.

A. Hfr donors

B. F+ donors

C. F' cells

D. F- cells

E. Neither A, B, C nor D

B. Chemotrophs - gets their energy by oxidation or

breakdown of CO2.

The statements below are incorrectly matched EXCEPT:

(Classification of bacteria according to sources of carbon,

energy and electrons)

A. Litotrophs - uses sugar and amino acids as energy source.

B. Chemotrophs - gets their energy by oxidation or

breakdown of CO2.

C. Heterotrophs - makes organic compounds from CO2.

D. Organotrophs - uses CO2 as source of carbon.

E. A, B, C and D are all correctly matched.

D. Capnophiles

These are organisms that can grow best in the presence of high

concentrations of carbon dioxide.

A. Halophiles

B. Barophiles

C. Neutrophiles

D. Capnophiles

E. Acidophiles

C. 5 is incorrect

The following ground rules about specimen collection are

correct except:

1. Collect the specimen from the actual site of disease and do

not contaminate it with micro organism from nearby areas

2. Always use sterile equipment and materials to collect

specimen as well as specimen containers.

3. Sterilize materials used on collecting the specimen as soon

as possible.

4. Collect adequate amounts of specimen.

5. Specimen in swabs are accepted in the laboratory

A. 1 & 2 are incorrect

B. Only 4 & 5 are correct

C. 5 is incorrect

D. All statements except 5 are incorrect

A. Transport Media

Designed to maintain the viability of microorganisms present in

a specimen w/o supporting the growth of any of the organisms

A. Transport Media

B. Culture Media

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

C. Between tonsilar pillars, behind uvula

In throat swab, specimen collection should be done in?

A. Tongue surface

B. Tonsillar pillars

C. Between tonsilar pillars, behind uvula

D. Inner cheeks, avoiding tongue and tee

B. Teeth should be cleaned and mouth should be rinsed

with tap water prior to collection

In collecting sputum specimen, the following should be

considered EXCEPT:

A. collect early in the morning

B. Teeth should be cleaned and mouth should be rinsed

with tap water prior to collection

C. Specimen collected should represent true pulmonary

secretion and not saliva

D. Container for sputum specimen should be sterile

B. Colonization

First stage of microbial infection

A. Toxigenesis

B. Colonization

C. Evasion

D. Inhibition

C. Tolerance

Is a property of the host in which there is an immunologicallyspecific reduction in the immune response to a given Antigen

A. Invasiveness

B. Immunity

C. Tolerance

D. None of the above

D. B & C

The following are characteristics of Endotoxins EXCEPT:

A. stable; heat tolerant

B. Highly antigenic

C. Highly toxic

D. B & C

E. All of the above

A. Algae

Which of the following are known to be non-pathogenic?

A. Algae

B. Virus

C. Bacteria

D. Protozoa

A. fecal-oral transmission

Type of protozoan parasite to host transmission wherein a

environmentally-resistant cyst stages passed in faeces of one

host and ingested with food/water by another

A. fecal-oral transmission

B. Direct transmission

C. Vector-borne transmission

D. Predator-prey transmission

A. True

In course of infection, the virus can still transmit to other people

in Decline stage

A. True

B. False

C. Specific Adaptive Resistance

Immune system's line of defense that involves two types of

white blood cells: B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

A. Primary defense

B. Non-specific Innate Resistance

C. Specific Adaptive Resistance

D. None of the above

C. B and T lymphocytes

Which of the following WBCs is not a granulocyte

A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

C. B and T lymphocytes

D. Basophils

D. Mast cells

Blood component whose main function is to regulate

vasodilation, vascular homeostasis, innate and adaptive

immune responses, angiogenesis, and venom detoxification.

A. Platelets

B. Basophils

C. Neutrophils

D. Mast cells

A. Tonsils

Are clusters of lymphatic tissue just under the mucous

membranes that line the nose, mouth, and throat (pharynx).

A. Tonsils

B. Spleen

C.Thymus

D. Lymph nodes

B. Spleen

largest lymphatic organ in the body

A. Tonsils

B. Spleen

C. Thymus

D. Lymph nodes

C. Thymus

Is a soft organ with two lobes that is located anterior to the

ascending aorta and posterior to the sternum whose primary

function is the processing and maturation of special

lymphocytes called T-lymphocytes or T-cells.

A. Tonsils

B. Spleen

C. Thymus

D. Lymph nodes

A. 120 days

Lifespan of Erythrocyte

A. 120 days

B. 12 weeks

C. 8-12 days

D. 120 hrs

D. Antibodies

Soluble factors of innate immunity consist of the following,

except:

A. Enzymes

B. Acute phase reactants

C. Interferons

D. Antibodies

B. Active and artificial

You administer Patient X's third dose of Hepatitis B

recombinant vaccine. What is the mechanism by which Patient

X acquires immunity from Hepatitis B?

A. Active and natural

B. Active and artificial

C. Passive and natural

D. Passive and artificial

C. Passive and natural

Newborns are usually protected by their mother's antibodies for

at least 6 months. What is their mode of acquiring immunity

from diseases?

A. Active and natural

B. Active and artificial

C. Passive and natural

D. Passive and artificial

A. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Which of the following statements is carried out by cellmediated immunity?

A. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

B. Opsonization and phagocytosis

C. Agglutination

D. Blocking infective activity of pathogens

B. Idiotope

Which part of the antibody binds to the epitope?

A. Idiotype

B. Idiotope

C. Amino terminal

D. Fab

A. IgA

his is considered the major immunoglobulin in bodily secretions

and protects exposed cavities and mucous membranes.

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

C. IgM

The following classes of antibodies are capable of existing as a

monomer, except:

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

D. All of the above

How does the secondary immune response differ from the

primary immune response?

A. Shorter lag period

B. More rapid IgG response

C. IgG levels are higher

D. All of the above

C. Perforin and granzyme A-B

What substances allow CD8+ T cells to kill their target cell?

A. Acute phase reactants

B. Lymphokines

C. Perforin and granzyme A-B

D. Antibodies

A. Direct immune agglutination

Agglutination tests between antibodies and antigens naturally

found on cells are known as:

A. Direct immune agglutination

B. Direct non-immune agglutination

C. Passive agglutination

D. Reverse passive agglutination

B. Agglutinogens

During blood typing, A or B antigens on red blood cells are

considered:

A. Antigens

B. Agglutinogens

C. Both A & B

D. None of the above

A. Known - antigen-coated particles; unknown - agglutinin

Which of the following choices describe passive agglutination

tests?

A. Known - antigen-coated particles; unknown - agglutinin

B. Known - antibody-coated particles; unknown - agglutinogen

C. Known - antigen-coated particles; unknown - agglutinogen

D. Known - antibody-coated particles; unkown - agglutinin

D. A cells - (+) clumping; B cells - (+) clumping

During reverse ABO blood typing, what is the expected result if

the patient was type O on forward blood typing?

A. A cells - (+) clumping; B cells - (-) clumping

B. A cells - (-) clumping; B cells - (-) clumping

C. A cells - (-) clumping; B cells - (+) clumping

D. A cells - (+) clumping; B cells - (+) clumping

B. Antibodies are mostly IgG

Which of the following statements accurately describe the Rh

blood group system?

A. Antibodies are naturally occurring

B. Antibodies are mostly IgG

C. Composed of 2 major antigens

D. Can be classified using forward and reverse typing

B. Leukocyte infiltration

Which of the following do not characterize the immediate

reaction of type I hypersensitivity?

A. Occurs within minutes of exposure to an antigen

B. Leukocyte infiltration

C. Smooth muscle spasm

D. Vascular leakage

B Type II hypersensitivity

Grave's disease and myasthenia gravis are examples of:

A. Type I hypersensitivity

B Type II hypersensitivity

C. Type III hypersensitivity

D. Type IV hypersensitivity

C. Macrophages

These cells are large macrophages with abundant cytoplasm

and are considered the primary cell population of granulomas.

A. Lymphocytes

B. Multinucleated giant cells

C. Macrophages

D. Epithelioid cells

A. Inflammation

Immune complexes elicit damage to normal host tissues by:

A. Inflammation

B. Phagocytosis

C. Cytotoxic destruction

D. Opsonization

A. Sterilization

A process whereby all forms of microbial life, including spores

are killed:

A. Sterilization

B. Disinfection

C. Sedimentation

D. Sanitation

E. both B and D

B. Refrigeration is a means of killing microorganisms.

All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

A. Boiling is not effective in killing all spores

B. Refrigeration is a means of killing microorganisms.

C. Sterilization can be done by physical means such as heat.

D. The usual autoclaving temperature is 121 ° C.

E. The hot air sterilizer that was used in the laboratory employed a temperature of 160 ° C.

D. Coagulation of proteins occurs more rapidly in the

absence of water.

All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

A. Coagulation of proteins occurs more rapidly in the presence

of water.

B. Refrigeration is considered bacteriostatic

C. Flaming wire needles is a form of incineration.

D. Coagulation of proteins occurs more rapidly in the

absence of water.

E. Sterilization by dry heat requires a longer time compared to

sterilization by moist heat.

B. statements 1 and 3

Which of the statement/s is/are true of Steam/Moist Heat under

Pressure?

1. Can kill all forms of organisms

2. Would usually lasts for 3 days

3. It is carried out by autoclave

4. Its mechanism of action is protein

A. statements 1, 2 and 3

B. statements 1 and 3

C. statements 2 and 4

D. only statement 4

E. all of the statements

C. autoclaving

Basing on the results from the experiment, the MOST effective

physical agent/s in destroying bacteria

A. boiling

B. refrigeration

C. autoclaving

D. All of the above

E. Both A and C

D. merthiolate

Which among the following chemical agents is NOT an

antiseptic?

A. sodium hypochlorite

B. ethyl alcohol

C. betadine

D. merthiolate

E. Isopropyl alcohol

D. All of the above

The following materials are used for bacterial filtration:

A. Sintered glass

B. Compressed asbestos

C. Unglazed porcelain

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

B. The mechanism of action is protein coagulation.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding moist heat

sterilization?

A. The mechanism of action is protein oxidation.

B. The mechanism of action is protein coagulation.

C. Free-flowing steam is also known as steam under pressure.

D. Moist heat has lesser penetrating power than does dry heat.

E. Moist heat may be applied as hot water or direct heat.

B. An article being disinfected must be completely

submerged.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about

disinfectants?

A. The recommended length of time sufficient to destroy all

microorganisms is 8- 14 hours.

B. An article being disinfected must be completely

submerged.

C. The lower the temperature, the greater is the disinfecting

power.

D. An article being disinfected must not be completely

submerged.

C. Thermal Death Point

The temperature that kills a 24-hour liquid culture of a certain

species of bacteria at a pH of 7 in 10 minutes is known as:

A. Thermal Death Time

B. Thermal Death Temperature

C. Thermal Death Point

D. Thermal Death Note

E. None of the above

E. None of the above

The following are true about pasteurization, EXCEPT:

A. Destroys undesirable microorganism without changing the

composition of the food

B. All nonspore-bearing disease-producing bacteria and most

nonspore-bearing nonpathogenic bacteria are killed when

exposed in a watery liquid to a temperature of 61°C in 30

minutes

C. Pasteurization does not change the food value of the

material itself

D. This method of sterilization is not recommended if there is

presence of saprophytic microorganism

E. None of the above

A. Cold boiling

This results from the passage of ultrasonic pressure waves

through a cleaning solution:

A. Cold boiling

B. Fluorescent waves

C. Tyndallization

D. Protein oxidation

E. None of the above

D. Incineration

You are questioning a student about the different types of moist

heat sterilization. You know that the student answered

INCORRECTLY when the response is:

A. Boiling

B. Free-flowing steam

C. Pasteurization

D. Incineration

E. Intermittent sterilization

A. Spectrum of Activity

Refers to the range of antimicrobial activity

A. Spectrum of Activity

B. Mode of Action

C. Antibacterial Inhibition

D. Metabolite Analog

A. Is a highly corrosive agent and that its strong solution

should not touch the skin

A nursing student is explaining about phenolic compounds to

her classmate. She is RIGHT when she states that carbolic

acid:

A. Is a highly corrosive agent and that its strong solution

should not touch the skin

B. Can kill all vegetative bacteria & less resistant spores using

3% solution

C. Can be safely used with bare hands when diluted

D. Is bacteriostatic when using 5% solution

B. Acts on microorganisms associated with living body

The following statements are TRUE about disinfection,

EXCEPT:

A. Kills disease- producing organisms & their products

B. Acts on microorganisms associated with living body

C. Deals with inanimate objects

D. Makes use of chemical agents known as disinfectants

A. Cellulose membranes

Identify material being shown in the picture:

A. Cellulose membranes

B. Sintered glass

C. Compressed asbestos

D. Diatomaceous earth

D. Exfoliative toxins

What virulent factor is responsible in a Staphylococcal Skin

Scalded Syndrome?

A. Hemolysins

B. Leukocidin

C. Enterotoxins

D. Exfoliative toxins

E. Coagulase

E. A and C

Which of the following test would be a definitive test for

Staphylococcus?

A. Tube Coagulase test

B. Oxidase test

C. Slide coagulase test

D. A and B

E. A and C

A. 1234

Which of the following statement/s is/are true with

staphyloxanthin?

1. A carotenoid pigment that is produced by Staphylococcus

aureus.

2. It has an antioxidant property that help the bacteria evade

death by environmental conditions.

3. It can also act as a virulent factor.

4. It has a characteristic golden yellow color.

A. 1234

B. 1

C. 124

D. 4

E. 234

D. Some strains of S. aureus produce fibrinolysin which

dissolve the clot after 4 hours of Incubation and may give

a false(+) result

Each of the following statements concerning Coagulase test is

correct, EXCEPT:

A. Slide test detects clumping factor or cell bound coagulase

B. Citrated plasma should not be used in the test because it will

give a false(+) results

C. Coagulase(+) is the most distinguishing characteristic of S.

aureus

D. Some strains of S. aureus produce fibrinolysin which

dissolve the clot after 4 hours of Incubation and may give

a false(+) result

E. Tube coagulase detects production of extracellular or free

coagulase

A. Tonsillar swab

A patient is admitted to the hospital complaining a swollen

tonsillitis and rash. Upon examination the physician noted an

erythematous rash and a strawberry tongue. Initial diagnosis is

that patient might be suffering from a scarlet fever that might be

due to a streptococcal infection. What would be the best

specimen to confirm if the patient is suffering from a

streptococcal infection?

A. Tonsillar swab

B. Sputum

C. Saliva

D. Esophagus swab

E. Stool

B. M protein

All of the following are a virulence factor of a Streptococcus

pneumoniae, EXCEPT:

A. Capsule

B. M protein

C. Neuramidase

D. Pneumolysin

E. Protease

E. A, B and C

Which of the following is a common clinical syndrome if the

patient is infected with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A. Lobar pneumonia

B. Bacteremia

C. Meningitis

D. A and C

E. A, B and C

E. 2345

Which of the following statements concerning Streptococcus

pneumoniae is correct?

1 - bile sensitive, alpha hemolytic streptococci

2 - gram(+) lanceolate diplococci and grows very well 5-10%

CO2

3 - virulence is associated with the polysaccharide capsule

4 - etiologic agent of bacterial meningitis in infants, young

children and adults

5 - mode of transmission is person to person with contaminated

respiratory secretions

A. 12345

B. 1235

C. 1245

D. 1345

E. 2345

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

A culture of skin lesions from a patient with pyoderma

(impetigo) shows numerous colonies surrounded by a zone of

beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate. A gram-stained shows

Gram(+) cocci. If the catalase test is negative, which one of the

following organisms would you MOST probably have isolated?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

E. None of the above

C. 3

Which of the following is/are NOT a characteristic of a

Neisseria?

1. may penetrate intracellularly

2. Fastidious organism

3. Resistant to adverse environmental condition

4. Produce catalase and cytochrome oxidase

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 3 and 4

B. Thayer Martin Medium

What differential medium is suitable in isolating non-pathogenic

Neisseria form a pathogenic Neisseria?

A. Mueller Hinton Agar

B. Thayer Martin Medium

C. Chocolate Agar

D. A and B

E. A and C

A. 1234

Which of the is True with Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

1. One of the leading causes of STD's

2. It can also lead to disseminated infections such as dermatitis

and arthritis

3. Can cause Ophthalmia neonatorum in children

4. A sexually transmitted disease.

A. 1234

B. 32

C. 13

D. 123

E. 234

A. CHO Fermentation test

What test is used as a definitive test in differentiating Neisseria

species?

A. CHO Fermentation test

B. CTA test

C. Mannitol sugar test

D. A and B

E. A and C

D. All of the above

Which of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is

correct?

A. Infection in men is more frequently symptomatic than in

women

B. A presumptive diagnosis can be made by finding the gram(-

) kidney-bean-shaped diplococci within the neutrophils in

urethral discharge

C. The definitive diagnosis can be made by CHO degradation

in which ferments only glucose without gas

D. All of the above

E. A & B only

A. 12345

Which one of the following statements concerning Neisseria

gonorrhoeoe is CORRECT?

1-gram(-) coffee-bean shaped diplococci

2-nonsporing, nonmotile, piliated organism

3-luxuruant growth occurs in Modified Thayer Martin

mediumImmersive Reader

4-grows best under increased CO2(3%-7%)

5-it contains endotoxin in its cell wall

A. 12345

B. 1235

C. 1245

D. 1345

E. 2345

A. Staphylococcus aureus

Modified Matching: important source of food poisoning

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C. Both

D. Neither

A. Staphylococcus aureus

Modified Matching: possess cell wall protein A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C. Both

D. Neither

B. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Modified Matching: coagulase(-), thermonuclease(-), mannitol(-)

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C. Both

D. Neither