Animal Responses

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Last updated 10:02 AM on 5/12/25
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96 Terms

1
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What is the central nervous system (CNS)?

The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord.

2
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What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

The PNS is made up of nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body.

3
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What does the somatic nervous system control?

It controls conscious activities, such as running and playing video games.

4
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What does the autonomic nervous system control?

It controls unconscious activities, such as digestion.

5
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What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

It prepares the body for action; it is the 'fight or flight' system.

6
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What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

It calms the body down and promotes 'rest and digest' activities.

7
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What do sympathetic nerves do?

They increase heart rate by releasing noradrenaline.

8
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What do parasympathetic nerves do?

They decrease heart rate by releasing acetylcholine.

9
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What are the five main regions of the human brain?

The cerebrum, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata.

10
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What is the cerebrum and what is its function?

The largest part of the brain, responsible for conscious activities like vision, hearing, speech, thinking, and memory.

11
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How much of the brain’s mass does the cerebrum account for?

About 80%.

12
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Into how many lobes is the cerebrum divided?

Five lobes.

13
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What joins the two cerebral hemispheres together?

The corpus callosum, a band of nerve fibres.

14
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Which side of the body does the right cerebral hemisphere control?

The left side.

15
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Which side of the body does the left cerebral hemisphere control?

The right side.

16
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What is the cerebral cortex?

The thin, highly folded outer layer of the cerebrum also called grey matter

17
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Why is the cerebral cortex highly folded?

To increase surface area and allow more neurones and connections.

18
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What is found beneath the cerebral cortex?

White matter, made of myelinated axons.

19
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What is the hypothalamus?

Part of the brain that controls body temperature and hormones.

20
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What does the hypothalamus monitor?

It checks the blood to control body temperature and hormones.

21
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What are three main functions of the hypothalamus?

Regulating body temperature, osmoregulation, and controlling endocrine functions.

22
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How does the hypothalamus regulate body temperature?

By monitoring blood temperature and initiating homeostatic responses.

23
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How does the hypothalamus help with osmoregulation?

By monitoring blood concentration and stimulating the release of ADH if needed.

24
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What is the function of the pituitary gland?

Produces and releases hormones that regulate body processes or stimulate other glands.

25
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What are the two parts of the pituitary gland?

The anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary.

26
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What does the anterior pituitary do?

Produces and releases its own hormones.

27
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What does the posterior pituitary do?

Stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus.

28
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Where is the cerebellum located and what is its function?

Below the cerebrum; it controls motor coordination and balance.

29
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Are the actions controlled by the cerebellum voluntary or involuntary?

Involuntary (subconscious).

30
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Where is the medulla oblongata found?

At the base of the brain, where it joins the spinal cord.

31
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What are the three centres found in the medulla oblongata?

The cardiac centre, vasomotor centre, and respiratory centre.

32
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What does the cardiac centre in the medulla control?

Heart rate.

33
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What does the vasomotor centre in the medulla control?

Blood pressure.

34
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What does the respiratory centre in the medulla control?

Breathing rate.

35
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What hormones does the posterior pituitary gland store and release?

ADH and oxytocin

36
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What is the main function of the anterior pituitary gland?

It produces and releases its own hormones.

37
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What is a reflex?

A rapid, automatic response to a stimulus that does not involve conscious processing by the brain.

38
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What triggers the blinking reflex?

Sensory nerve endings in the cornea are stimulated by touch.

39
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What happens after the cornea is stimulated in the blinking reflex?

An impulse is sent along a sensory neuron to a relay neuron in the medulla oblongata.

40
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How is the blinking reflex completed?

Motor neurons send impulses to the orbicularis oculi muscles via the facial nerve, causing the eyelids to close.

41
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What is the function of the orbicularis oculi muscle?

It contracts to close the eyelids during the blinking reflex.

42
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What is the function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle in blinking?

It raises the upper eyelid; during blinking, it is inhibited to allow the eyelid to close.

43
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What initiates the knee-jerk reflex?

Stretch receptors in the quadriceps detect muscle stretching.

44
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How does the knee-jerk reflex work?

The sensory neuron sends an impulse directly to a motor neuron in the spinal cord, which causes the quadriceps to contract.

45
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What is the result of the knee-jerk reflex?

The lower leg moves forward due to quadriceps contraction.

46
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What triggers the fight or flight response?

Nerve impulses arriving at the hypothalamus activate the hormonal and sympathetic nervous systems.

47
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How does the pituitary gland contribute to the fight or flight response?

It releases ACTH, causing the adrenal cortex to release steroid hormones.

48
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What hormone is released by the adrenal medulla during fight or flight?

Adrenaline.

49
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How does adrenaline affect the heart during fight or flight?

It increases heart rate and stroke volume.

50
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How does adrenaline affect breathing?

It relaxes muscles around the bronchioles, allowing deeper breathing.

51
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How does adrenaline affect energy availability?

It converts glycogen to glucose, increasing respiration.

52
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How does adrenaline affect the skin during fight or flight?

It causes arterioles supplying the skin to constrict and erector pili muscles to contract.

53
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How does adrenaline affect blood flow to muscles?

It dilates arterioles supplying the heart, lungs, and skeletal muscles.

54
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What is the sinoatrial node (SAN)?

A group of cells in the heart that generate electrical impulses causing cardiac muscle contraction.

55
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How is heart rate controlled?

The medulla oblongata unconsciously controls the rate at which the SAN fires.

56
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What receptors detect internal stimuli affecting heart rate?

Baroreceptors (pressure) and chemoreceptors (chemical).

57
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How does the medulla respond to high blood pressure?

Baroreceptors send impulses to the medulla, which sends signals via the vagus nerve releasing acetylcholine to decrease heart rate.

58
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How does the medulla respond to low blood pressure?

Baroreceptors send impulses to the medulla, which sends signals via the accelerator nerve releasing noradrenaline to increase heart rate.

59
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How does the medulla respond to high blood pH?

Chemoreceptors detect high pH; the medulla signals via the vagus nerve to decrease heart rate.

60
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How does the medulla respond to low blood pH?

Chemoreceptors detect low pH; the medulla signals via the accelerator nerve to increase heart rate.

61
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What is the Student's t-test used for?

To determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two data sets.

62
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When do you reject the null hypothesis using the Student's t-test?

When the calculated t-value is greater than the critical value at p < 0.05.

63
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What are the main effects of adrenaline on the body?

Increases heart rate and stroke volume, converts glycogen to glucose, affects blood flow, and dilates bronchioles.

64
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How does adrenaline affect heart contraction?

It causes the heart to contract more rapidly and forcefully.

65
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What are muscle fibres?

Large bundles of long, multinucleated cells specialized for contraction.

66
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What is the sarcolemma?

The cell membrane of a muscle fibre.

67
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What are transverse (T) tubules?

Folds of the sarcolemma that help spread electrical impulses into the muscle fibre.

68
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What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

An organelle that stores and releases calcium ions for muscle contraction.

69
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Why do muscle fibres have many mitochondria?

To provide ATP required for muscle contraction.

70
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Why are muscle fibres multinucleate?

They contain many nuclei to support their large cytoplasmic volume.

71
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What are myofibrils?

Cylindrical organelles within muscle fibres specialized for contraction.

72
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What do myofibrils contain?

Bundles of thick (myosin) and thin (actin) myofilaments.

73
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What are thick myofilaments made of?

The protein myosin.

74
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What are thin myofilaments made of?

The protein actin.

75
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What are A-bands (dark bands)?

Regions containing thick myosin filaments and overlapping thin actin filaments.

76
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What are I-bands (light bands)?

Regions containing only thin actin filaments.

77
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What are sarcomeres?

The short contractile units that make up myofibrils.

78
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What is the Z-line?

The boundary at each end of a sarcomere.

79
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What is the M-line?

The line in the centre of the sarcomere, in the middle of the myosin filaments.

80
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What is the H-zone?

The region within the A-band that contains only myosin filaments.

81
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What happens during the sliding filament theory?

Actin and myosin filaments slide past each other, shortening the sarcomere and causing muscle contraction.

82
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What happens to the bands in the sarcomere as it contracts?

The A-band remains the same length, while the I-band and H-zone become shorter.

83
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What are some features of myosin filaments?

They have globular heads that bind to actin and ATP.

84
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What proteins regulate the interaction between actin and myosin?

Tropomyosin and troponin.

85
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What happens to the actin-myosin binding sites in resting muscle?

The binding sites are blocked by tropomyosin.

86
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What is the first step of how an action potential triggers muscle contraction?

The action potential depolarizes the sarcolemma.

87
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What is the second step of how an action potential triggers muscle contraction?

The depolarization spreads down T tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

88
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What is the third step of how an action potential triggers muscle contraction?

This triggers the release of stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.

89
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What is the fourth step of how an action potential triggers muscle contraction?

Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move and exposing the actin-myosin binding sites.

90
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What role does ATP play during muscle contraction?

ATP is required for myosin heads to detach from actin and reattach to a new binding site, enabling repeated contraction cycles.

91
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What happens when the muscle stops being stimulated?

Calcium ions are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

92
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What is a neuromuscular junction?

A synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle fibre, where acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter.

93
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What happens if a chemical blocks neurotransmitter release at the neuromuscular junction?

It can prevent action potentials in the muscle, potentially affecting muscles involved in breathing.

94
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What is skeletal muscle?

Voluntary, striated muscle responsible for movement, posture, and maintaining body position.

95
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What is involuntary muscle?

Non-striated muscle found in the walls of internal organs; it contracts slowly and is not under conscious control.

96
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How can muscle contractions be measured electrically?

By using electromyography (EMG) to record an electromyogram trace.