Exam 4 Mansour Review

What should you avoid damaging in front sinus trephination?

Frontal v

What bones form the angle caudal to the orbit? (2)

Temporal and zygomatic

Name the bony part, epidermal part, and innervation of the horn i

Bone: cornual process of frontal bone

Epidermal: horn sheath

Innervation:

What sinus could be exposed to the environment in a dehorning process?

Caudal part of frontal sinus

Name the THREE diverticulum seen in the caudal frontal sinus.

Nuchal diverticulum

Post orbital diverticulum

Cornual diverticulum

True or False: The rostral has 2-3 divisions (lateral, middle, and medial compartments).

True!

Dehorning in an adult ruminant leads to opening of the --- --- and therefore exposure of the --- --- --- to the external environment.

Cornual diverticulum

Caudal frontal sinus

What is the maxillary sinus DORSAL to?

Does it have a dividing septum like the horse?

How does it communicate with the nasal cavity?

Cheek teeth

No

Middle nasal meatus

True or False: The maxillary sinus communicates with the caudal frontal sinus.

False! They do NOT communicate.

What is the caudal extension of the maxillary sinus called? What does the maxillary sinus communicate with DORSALLY in relation to this?

Lacrimal bulla

Lacrimal sinus

What is the clinical significance of the lacrimal bulla?

Easy to fracture during enucleation

True or False: Deciduous teeth are much smaller in size and whiter in color than permanent teeth.

True!

Temporary teeth are relatively smaller in size, whiter in color, and have a --- structure located near the gum line compared to permanent teeth.

Neck

Name the PERMANENT dental formula and total number of teeth in a cow.

(I 0/3 C 0/1 P 3/3 M 3/3) OR (I 0/4 P3/3 M3/3) x2

32

There is no --- premolar in a cow.

First (P1)

What tooth numbers are mandibular canines even though they have the same shape as true incisors?

304 and 404 (I4- corner incisor)

Name the THREE major aging criteria of ruminants based on teeth.

Eruption of permanent mandibular and canine incisors

Fully developed and in wear

Leveling

Deciduous teeth are seen between birth until about --- months. Adults can be aged by their incisors until they reach ----- based on incisor eruption and development.

18 months

5 years

Name the AVERAGE eruption time for all FOUR incisors.

I1: 18 months

I2: 27 months

I3: 36 months

I4: 45 months

True or False: Incisors will take between 6-12 months after erupting to reach full development.

True!

Explain how to calculate incisor eruption time in small ruminants.

Take cow times and subtract 6 from each

The term --- in ruminants dentition means that an incisor mandibular tooth has been in wear long enough that the --- --- of the enamel has turned from --- appearance to a --- appearance.

Leveling

Wavy

Round

The central and first intermediate incisors are permanent and fully developed but not level yet. How old is this cow most likely?

36 months (3 years)

Name when the FOUR incisors should be level.

I1: 6 years

I2: 7 years

I3: 8 years

I4: 9 years

What is the clinical significance of the facial a in cattle? How is this different in small ruminants and what is used instead?

Site of pulse assessment

No facial a in small ruminants; use transverse facial a

What structure can be affected in cancer eye with cattle?

Parotid ln

What is the major lymph collecting site of the head?

Lateral retropharyngeal ln

What fiber type is present in the dorsal buccal branch of CN VII?

Somatic motor

Name the CN source, fiber type, and blocking landmark of the cornual n

CN source: maxillary branch of CN V

Fiber: Sensory

Blocking: lateral canthus and lateral base of horn

Name the CN source, fiber type, and blocking landmark of the auriculopalpebral n.

CN source: facial (CN VII)

Fiber: motor

Blocking: zygomatic arch in front ear

What THREE nerves are involved in goat dehorning? What is in the cow? Hint: Not the same number.

Goat: Cornual, great auricular, infratrochlear

Cow: Cornual and great auricular

What is the most common orbital surgical procedure performed in cattle that alleviates painful ophthalmic pathologies and can halt the progression of neoplasia such as ocular squamous cell carcinoma?

Enucleation

What TWO nerve block techniques are options for eye enucleations?

Peterson nerve block

Retrobulbar (4-point) nerve block

What CNN are involved in the Peterson nerve block?

CNN 3, 4, 5 (sensory only), and 6

True or False: The same CNN are targeted in both the Peterson and retrobulbar nerve block.

True!

What structure is vulnerable to damage in retrobulbar procedures?

Lacrimal bulla

Name ALL nerves involved in the Peterson and retrobulbar nerve blocks.

Ophthalmic and maxillary br. of CN V

Muscle paralysis from CNN III, IV, VI

Where is the Peterson nerve block performed to anesthetize the majority of CNN supplying the eye as they enter and exit the skull?

Foramen orbitorotundum

Name TWO structures that should be avoided when placing your needle for a Peterson nerve block.

Pterygoid process

Coronoid process of mandible

True or False: In a Peterson block, the needle is placed at the caudal bifurcation of the zygomatic bone (between temporal and frontal processes).

True!

The two major landmarks for the Peterson nerve block come from the --- process and --- process of the zygomatic bone.

Frontal

Temporal

What CN or CN part innervates the upper maxillary teeth, the horn, and some of the eye-related structure?

Maxillary br. of CN V

What is the ventral boundary of the jugular groove in a goat?

Sternozygomaticus m

Name the clinical significance of both the torus linguae and fossa linguae.

Torus: challenging to pass orogastric tube

Fossa: site of foreign body and infection

What is the importance of the incisive papillae found in the dental pad?

Incisive duct for vomeronasal organ for pheromones and Flehmen response

Name the DORSAL and VENTRAL boundaries of the jugular groove in the cow.

Dorsal: cleidomastoideus (brachiocephalicus)

Ventral: sternomandibularis

Name the TWO parts of the nuchal ligament, indicating which is unpaired or paired.

Funicular: paired (external occipital protuberance)

Lamellar: unpaired

What is the main collecting lymph center for the neck?

Superficial cervical (prescapular) ln

Name the lobes of the LEFT lung.

Cranial (cranial + caudal parts)

Caudal

Name the lobes of the RIGHT lung.

Cranial

Middle

Caudal

Accessory

True or False: Ruminant lung lobes are demarcated by deep fissures over connective tissue, which is less than sheep.

True!

When passing an ET tube with an inflatable cuff, make sure you stay cranial to what lung lobe?

Cranial and caudal parts of the cranial lobe of right lung

Name the boundaries of lung auscultation.

Cranial: caudal part of triceps

Dorsal: epaxial muscles

Caudal: basal border of lungs (low 6th to high 11th ICS)

Where do the LEFT and RIGHT azygous veins empty in the ruminant?

Left: coronary sinus -> right atrium

Right: cranial vena cava

What ln can squish the ESOPHAGUS and DORSAL VAGAL TRUNK and cause eructation/gas problems in the ruminant?

Caudal mediastinal ln

What bony structure is found in various ruminant hearts? What valve do they support?

Os cordis

Aortic

True or False: Cattle usually only have one bone making the os cordis.

False! RUMINANTS usually only have one bone.

What connective tissue structure covers the EAO?

Tunica flava abdominis

What occurs when cattle cannot eructate/belch or release gases produced from microbial fermentation in the rumen?

Ruminal tympany (bloast)

Bloat can be relieved by trocarization through what?

Left paralumbar fossa

What is the displacement of the gas-filled, distended abomasum from the ventral abdominal floor into the dorsal right abdominal cavity?

What is it a differential diagnosis from?

RDA

Cecal ping

True or False: Cecal pings are more cranial and within the thoracic cage, while RDA pings are more caudal.

False! RDA ping more CRANIAL and within the thoracic cage while cecal ping is more CAUDAL.

What is the normal location of the abomasum?

Right flank

True or False: An RDA often will displace to the ventral edge of the liver.

True!

Describe the field where you should ping.

Tuber olecranon to tuber coxae

--- is a displacement of the abomasum to the left side, trapping it between the --- and the --- ---.

It is pinged with the rib cage below that of the rumen.

LDA

Rumen

Abdominal wall

What THREE spinal nerves are involved in anesthesia of the FLANK?

T13

L1

L2

(spinal nerves 5, 6, and 7)

Identify what structures are landmarks for the proximal paravertebral and distal paravertebral nerve blocks.

Proximal: intervertebral foramina

Distal: tips of transverse processes of first four lumbar

Name the THREE nerves involved in the distal paravertebral nerve blocks and where they are blocked.

T13 (costoabdominis): tip of L1

L1 (iliohypogastric): tip of L2

L2 (iliolingual): tip of L3-L4

True or False: The epaxial mm are included in the distal paravertebral block.

False! The epaxial mm are blocked in the PROXIMAL paravertebral block.

True or False: Both the ventral and dorsal branches of the spinal nerves are blocked in the distal paravertebral nerve block.

True!

Where do the VERTICAL and HORIZONTAL lines c=pass in the Inverted L block?

Vertical: caudal to last rib

Horizontal: ventral to transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae

What is the block pathway for infiltration of local analgesic solution?

Inverted L block

Describe the epaxial muscles on the LEFT and RIGHT sides following a proximal paravertebral nerve block for the dorsal and ventral branches of T13, L1, and L2.

Left: flaccid/anesthetized

Right: Contracting or active/anesthetized

What part of the omentum is attached to the left longitudinal groove? Right longitudinal groove?

Left longitudinal groove: superficial leaf

Right longitudinal groove: deep leaf

True or False: The deep leaf carries the small AND large intestine via the supraomental recess.

True!

What portion of the rumen lies within the OMENTAL BURSA?

Ventral sac

Which leaf of the omentum majorly forms the supraomental recess?

Deep leaf

The lesser omentum is seen on the (left/right) flank.

It attaches between the —- and —- —- of the abomasum.

Right

Liver

Lesser curvature

What part of the omentum covers the ABOMASUM?

Superficial leaf

Name the FOUR chambers of the ruminant stomach, indicating which are forestomach and which are true stomach.

Forestomach: reticulum, rumen, omasum

True: abomasum

What major groove on the RUMINAL side of the cow separates the dorsal and ventral sacs?

Left longitudinal groove

What stomach chamber is sometimes referred to as "Butcher's Bible?"

Omasum

What stomach chamber is honeycomb shaped? Which is shag rug-shaped?

Honeycomb: reticulum

Shag rug: rumen

What is the name for the opening between the omasum and abomasum?

Vela abomasica

Name the THREE components of the ascending colon.

Proximal loop

Spiral loop

Distal loop

What portion of the spiral loop turns INWARD? Which turns outward?

Inward: centripetal

Outward: centrifugal

The entire ruminant intestinal tract lies mostly to the (left/right) of the midline within the —- —.

Right

Supraomental recess

True or False: In order from superficial to deep, the topography in relation to the root of mesentery is proximal loop, distal loop, and descending colon.

False! This is the order from DEEP to SUPERFICIAL.

What is the major difference between the bovine and small ruminant kidney?

Bovine: lobulated

Small ruminant: smooth like dog/cat

True or False: The bovine kidney does NOT have a renal pelvis or crest.

True!

Each renal lobe drains into a small cup called the —-, which is a small branch of the —-.

Calyx

Ureter

True or False: Enzymes in the digestive tract catalyze hydrolysis reactions.

True!