Pharm Missed/Important Questions from Tests

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90 Terms

1
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What is an advantage of using amoxicillin over penicillin V?

Slightly broader spectrum

2
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Which antifungal agent for oral candidiasis is available as an aqueous solution?

Nystatin

3
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Contraindicated in a pregnant patient, has reduced effectiveness if taken with dairy products, antacids, or calcium supplements, and concentrates in GFC

Tetracycline

4
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most likely to produce an allergic reaction

Penicillin

5
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has the highest incidence of GI complaints of any of the antibiotics

Erythromycin

6
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can cause black pigmentation of mandibular and maxillary alveolar bone and the hard palate.

Minocycline

7
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Associated with a severe drug interaction with alcohol

Metronidazole

8
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Which 2 local anesthetic agents have the potential to cause methemoglobinemia as an adverse effect?

Prilocaine and Articaine

9
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Nitrous oxide, as used in the dental office, maintains the patient in stage _____ of Guedel's system of stages and planes

I

10
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The loss of respiratory control (i.e., diminished carbon dioxide response, paralysis of intercostal muscles) first occurs during which of Guedel's stages of anesthesia?

II

11
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Dental pain following a simple tooth extraction is best managed with which of the following choices?

Ibuprofen

12
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The following are conditions for which opioid analgesics should be used with extreme caution or not at all except which one?

Hypertension

13
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Which is an advantage of the NSAIDs over the opioids for the management dental pain in an opioid addict?

They are not addictive

14
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destroys or inhibits the growth of microorganisms such as bacteria

antibacterial

15
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the disease-producing power of the microorganism

virulence

16
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inhibits or kills organisms that can produce infection

antiinfective

17
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inhibits or retards the multiplication or growth of bacteria

bacteriostatic

18
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high risk for addiction or abuse

Schedule II

19
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available over the counter

Schedule V

20
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cannot be refilled more than 5 times within 6 months

Schedule III

21
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Cannot be telephoned into pharmacy

Schedule II

22
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regulates manufacture and distribution of substances (with abuse potential) and ultimately determines whether a drug is considered a controlled substance and its schedule

DEA

23
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responsible for creating pregnancy drug subsections and lactation subsections

FDA

24
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Regulates the labeling and advertising of prescription drugs

FDA

25
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Prohibits the false advertising of foods, nonprescription (OTC) drugs, and cosmetics

FTC

26
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-Regulates the trade practices of drug companies

FTC

27
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a

before

28
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ac

before meals

29
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bid

twice a day

30
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c

with

31
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cap

capsule

32
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d

day

33
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disp

dispense

34
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gm

gram

35
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gr

grain

36
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gtt

drop

37
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h

hour

38
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hs

at bedtime

39
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p

after

40
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pc

after meals

41
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PO

by mouth

42
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prn

as needed

43
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q

every

44
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qid

4 times a day

45
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s

without

46
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sig

write(label)

47
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ss

one half

48
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T/F:

When a drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect, it is called an agonist

fasle

49
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Most drugs are excreted through what mechanism?

glomerular filtration

50
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The route of administration of a drug affects the

both the onset and duration of response

51
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The following choices refer to adverse reactions involving exaggerated effects on target tissues EXCEPT

caused by a nontherapeutic action of a drug

52
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Which herbal supplement products have been proven effective in protecting against plaque and gingivitis?

Triclosan and Xylitol

53
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Physical dependence

is established by withdrawal syndrome and refers to the altered physiologic state that results from constantly increasing drug concentrations

54
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Which of the following choices is NOT a symptom of ethyl alcohol intoxication?

constricted pupils

55
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Which substance is associated with a deficiency of coagulation factors after chronic abuse?

Ethyl alcohol

56
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What should the dental hygienist do first if a patient reports a suspected adverse drug effect?

Determine what drugs the patient is taking

57
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Which dental anesthetic is contra-indicated for a pregnant woman?

Bupivicaine

58
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What would be the best choice for dental anesthesia in a pregnant patient?

Lidocaine

59
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The greatest risk to the fetus from exposure to drugs occurs

during the first trimester

60
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Which of the following choices would occur during a generalized discharge of the sympathetic nervous system?

Gylcogen breakdown

61
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The neurotransmitter released from a preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is

acetylcholine

62
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The acronym SLUD denotes adverse reactions associated with administration of _____ agents.

cholinergic

63
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Anticholinergics

Decrease esophageal and gastric motility

64
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A drug with anticholinergic side effects might exhibit all of the following except:

increased salivation

65
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Which of the following categories of autonomic nervous system (ANS) agents can cause an acute rise in intraocular blood pressure in patients with glaucoma?

Anticholinergic

66
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Adrenergic agents should be used with caution in patients with (1) angina, (2) hypertension, (3) hypothyroidism

1 & 2

67
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Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter of the

post-ganglionic nerve of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

68
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Which type of agent such as donepezil (Aricept) has been FDA approved for the treatment of dementia?

Cholinergic agents

69
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Which type of autonomic drugs are first-line therapy for overactive bladder (OAB)?

Anticholinergic agents

70
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Indications for parasympathetic autonomic nervous system (PANS) drugs include all except:

treatment of bronchial asthma

71
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Which is a major disadvantage of parenteral diazepam?

thrombophlebitis

72
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All are factors that contribute to the effectiveness of benzodiazepine EXCEPT

Highly ionized form?

73
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The SSRIs are first-line treatment for

major depressive disorder

74
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All are adverse reactions to first-generation antipsychotic medications EXCEPT

excessive salivation

75
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What antiseizure medication is most likely to cause gingival overgrowth?

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

76
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The drug group of choice for status epilepticus seizures is parenteral

diazepam (Valium)

77
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Each of the following effects is a characteristic of channel-blocking agents EXCEPT

orthostatic hypotension

78
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-artan

Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)

79
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-Pril

ACE inhibitor

80
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-olol

β-blocker

81
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-dipine

calcium channel blocker

82
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gingival enlargement is an adverse drug reaction

calcium channel blockers

83
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may cause chronic unproductive cough

ACE Inhibitors

84
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What antilipemic agent is commonly prescribed for trigeminal neuralgia?

Carbamazepine

85
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What antilipemic medication has been known to produce osteomalacia?

Phenytoin

86
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Gingival enlargement as a consequence of phenytoin therapy most commonly affects the __________ facial gingiva.

maxillary anterior

87
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most common formulation of local anesthesia used in dentistry today

Lidocaine 2% 1:100,000 epi

88
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indicated for a lengthy dental procedure based on duration of action

Bupivacaine (Marcaine) 0.5% w/ 1:200,000 epi

89
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Pregnant patient in 2nd trimester

Lidocaine 2% w/ 1:100,000 epi

90
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use should be avoided in minors

Prilocaine 4% w/ 1:200,000 epi