A & P Final Exam

1. The study of normal body structures is called _________.

A) anatomy
B) physiology
C) biology
D) microscopy
E) pathology

A) anatomy

2. Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows conclusions about which of the following?

A) the number of electrons in the element
B) the number of protons in the element
C) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons plus electrons in the element
E) none of the above

C) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element

3. If the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed, which function would be interrupted in the cell?

A) exocytosis
B) active transport
C) Protein synthesis
D) Ciliary action
E) Osmosis

C) Protein synthesis

4. What are the three common components of a feedback loop?

A) Stimulus, control center, and organ system
B) Receptor, control center, and effector
C) Stimulus, receptor, and control center
D) Receptor, organ, and organ system
E) Receptor, control center, and organ system

B) Receptor, control center, and effector

5. Which of the following always contains an amino functional group?

A) Protein
B) Fatty acid
C) Alcohol
D) Carbonic acid
E) Carbohydrate

A) Protein

6. An ionic bond is:

A) an example of a bond found between water molecules
B) an electrical attraction between oppositely charged atoms
C) a sharing of electrons between two atoms
D) the transfer of protons from one atom to another
E) the weakest bond between ions

B) an electrical attraction between oppositely charged atoms

7. Selective permeability can be most accurately described by which of the following?

A) An input of energy is required for transport.
B) Lipid-soluble molecules pass through a membrane.
C) There must be a concentration gradient for molecules to pass through a membrane.
D) Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane.
E) All molecules will cross the membrane without any energy required.

D) Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane.

8. What are the simplest body structures that are considered alive?

A) Organ systems
B) Organs
C) Cells
D) Organelles
E) Molecules

C) Cells

9. When two oxygen atoms (each with atomic number of 8) come together, they form a(n) _______ bond.

A) hydrogen
B) nonpolar covalent
C) polar covalent
D) ionic
E) peptide

B) nonpolar covalent

10. To increase the surface area of some cells, the plasma membrane possesses projections called:

A) cilia.
B) microvilli
C) microtubules
D) flagella
E) pseudopods

B) microvilli

11. Which organelle synthesizes steroids in the ovary and stores calcium in muscle cells?

A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Nucleus
D) Golgi complex
E) No organelle performs both functions

A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

12. An __________ is composed of two or more tissues, whereas________ are microscopic structures in a cell.

A) organ: organelles
B) organ system: organelles
C) organ system: organs
D) organ: molecules
E) organelle; molecules

A) organ: organelles

13. A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. This means the concentration of solutes in the solution is_________ than the concentration of solutes in the intracellular fluid, and will cause the cell to _________.

A) higher; swell
B) lower; swell
C) higher; shrink
D) lower; shrink
E) lower; burst

C) higher; shrink

14. The breakdown of starch by digestive enzymes into glucose molecules is a(n) __________ reaction.

A) dehydration synthesis
B) reduction
C) decomposition or hydrolysis
D) anabolic
E) exchange

C) decomposition or hydrolysis

15. Why do unsaturated fatty acids help keep a membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?

A) Unsaturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature.
B) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content, adding more cholesterol in membranes.
C) Unsaturated fatty acids are more polar than saturated fatty acids.
D) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids.
E) The carbon double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly.

E) The carbon double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly

16. If the atomic number of an element is 13, then how many electrons are in the outermost shell of the atom?

A) 2
B) 6
C) 10
D) 3
E) 5

D) 3

17. Which of these is hydrophobic?

A) Glucose
B) K+
C) Cl−
D) Water
E) Steroid

E) Steroid

18. Which cell membrane protein opens and closes to allow solutes into the cell at certain times?

A) Receptor protein
B) Channel protein
C) Gated channel protein
D) Cell identity marker protein
E) Cell-adhesion molecule protein

C) Gated channel protein

19. During exercise, body temperature rises. The body responds by dilating skin blood vessels, allowing heat to be lost by blood flowing closer to the body surface. This is an example of ___________.

A) dynamic equilibrium
B) positive feedback
C) metabolism control
D) set point adjustment
E) negative feedback

E) negative feedback

20. When chemicals move down a concentration gradient, the movement will be from an area of
_____________ concentration to an area of _____________ concentration.

A) low; high
B) high; high
C) equal; equal
D) high; low
E) low; low

D) high; low

21. Muscle cells contain numerous _________ to serve their high demand for ATP.

A) ribosomes
B) mitochondria
C) lysosomes
D) inclusions
E) Golgi vesicles

B) mitochondria

22. Glucose is classified as a __________ whereas glycogen is a ___________.

A) disaccharide; monosaccharide
B) monosaccharide; oligosaccharide
C) disaccharide; polysaccharide
D) monosaccharide; disaccharide
E) monosaccharide; polysaccharide

E) monosaccharide; polysaccharide

23. If peptides are too large to be transported into cells using transport proteins or channels, the
macromolecules are brought into the cell using

A) diffusion.
B) endocytosis.
C) gated channels.
D) exocytosis.
E) sodium potassium pump

B) endocytosis

24. Which of the following does not affect the rate of diffusion?

A) temperature
B) membrane permeability
C) size of molecules
D) presence of enzymes
E) steepness of the concentration gradient

D) presence of enzymes

25. A change in the conformation of a protein in response to extreme heat or pH is called __________.

A) contamination
B) saturation
C) denaturation
D) sedimentation
E) deconformation

C) denaturation

26. The movement of water from an area of____ solute concentration to an area of ____solute concentration describes osmosis.

A) low; high
B) high; low
C) low; equal
D) high; equal
E) equal; equal

A) low; high

27. Triglycerides consist of a 3-carbon compound called _________ bound to three _________.

A) pyruvate; fatty acids
B) lactate; glycerols
C) eicosanoid; steroids
D) glycerol; fatty acids
E) sterol; fatty acids

D) glycerol; fatty acids

28. Hydrogen bonds are characteristic of the following level of protein structure, such as seen in collagen?

A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) hexagonal

B) secondary

29. Which of these has the highest H+ concentration?

A) Lemon juice, pH= 2.3
B) Red wine, pH= 3.2
C) Tomato juice, pH= 4.7
D) Saliva, pH= 6.6
E) Ammonia, pH= 10.8

A) Lemon juice, pH= 2.3

30. Even though the environment outside of our body is always changing, our internal conditions remain fairly constant. This is known as _____________.

A) homeostasis
B) metastasis
C) adaptation
D) feedback loops
E) responsiveness

A) homeostasis

31. Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?

A) covalent bonds between carbon atoms
B) hydrogen bonds
C) ionic bonds
D) ionic and hydrogen bonds
E) none of the above

A) covalent bonds between carbon atom

32. Which of the following is not a membranous organelle?

A) Mitochondrion
B) Ribosome
C) Endoplasmic Reticulum
D) Golgi complex
E) Nucleus

B) Ribosome

33. An __________ violates the "rule" that the number of neutrons always equals the number of protons.

A) ion
B) electron
C) element
D) isotope
E) atom

D) isotope

34. What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?

A) Both involve the transport of a solute up its concentration gradient.
B) Both involve transport of a solute down its concentration gradient.
C) Both involve the use of energy provided by ATP.
D) Neither requires ATP to function.
E) Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport

E) Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport

35. If solution A, containing 8% glucose, was placed with a selectively permeable membrane opposite solution B containing 1% glucose, then

A) water will not move at all.
B) water will move from A to B down its concentration gradient
C) water will move from B to A down its concentration gradient
D) glucose will move from B to A
E) neither the glucose nor the water will diffuse

C) water will move from B to A down its concentration gradient

36. Which of the following is not a function of the sodium potassium pump?

A) Heat production
B) Transport of Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell
C) Secondary active transport
D) Regulation of cell volume
E) Keeps K+ concentration higher and Na+ lower within the cell than in ECF

B) Transport of Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell

37. Water molecules are attracted to each other by _____________.

A) a hydrogen bond
B) a peptide bond
C) an ionic bond
D) a covalent bond
E) a hydrolytic bond

A) a hydrogen bond

38. Select the statement that is true about osmosis.

A) Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells.
B) Osmosis is an energy-demanding or "active" process.
C) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute concentration to areas of
higher solute concentration.
D) In osmosis, solutes move from areas of lower water concentration to areas of higher water concentration.
E) Osmosis refers to the diffusion of gases

C) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute concentration to areas of
higher solute concentration.

39. Why is carbon especially well-suited to serve as the structural foundation of many biological molecules?

A) Carbon has four valence electrons, so it bonds with other atoms that can provide it with four more to complete its valence shell.
B) Carbon forms ionic bonds with hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and other elements.
C) Carbon atoms cannot bond with each other or form long chains.
D) Carbon fills its valence shell by sharing its four valence electrons with other atoms in a strong polar covalent bonds.
E) none of the above

A) Carbon has four valence electrons, so it bonds with other atoms that can provide it with four more to complete its valence shell.

40. Enzymes are _________.

A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) steroids
D) nucleic acids
E) proteins

E) proteins

41. Humans need blood pH to stay at 7.4, but many chemicals and CO2 cause changes to the pH daily. However humans maintain a constant pH in the blood by the release of ______________.

A) enzymes
B) nucleic acids
C) hormones
D) buffers
E) cholesterol

D) buffers

42. Water flows through a selectively permeable membrane by a process called ___________ and it is made easier by channels of transmembrane proteins called __________.

A) osmosis; water pumps
B) osmosis; aquaporins
C) osmosis; uniport
D) filtration: aquaporins
E) filtration; water pumps

B) osmosis; aquaporins

1) Which of the following best describes the tissue composition of the dermis?

A) Areolar and dense regular connective tissue
B) Areolar and dense irregular connective tissue
C) Dense irregular connective tissue and squamous epithelium
D) Dense regular connective tissue and reticular tissue
E) Areolar and reticular connective tissues

B) Areolar and dense irregular connective tissue

2) Which of the following is not a type of fibrous connective tissue?

A) Reticular tissue
B) Hyaline cartilage
C) Dense regular connective tissue
D) Dense irregular connective tissue
E) Areolar tissue

B) Hyaline cartilage

3) The basement membrane is found between ________ and _________.

A) epithelium; connective tissue
B) epithelium; extracellular material
C) epithelium; intracellular material
D) extracellular material; intracellular material
E) interstitial fluid; extracellular fluid

A) epithelium; connective tissue

4) ________ secrete _________ into _________.

A) Goblet cells; mucus; the blood
B) Endocrine glands; hormones; ducts
C) Exocrine glands; hormones; ducts
D) Endocrine glands; hormones; the blood
E) Exocrine glands; mucus; the blood

D) Endocrine glands; hormones; the blood

5) Darker skin tones are controlled by ___________________.

A) carotene
B) pheomelanin
C) eumelanin
D) neuromelanin
E) allomelanin

C) eumelanin

6) Fibroblasts and collagen fibers are associated with both ___________ and _____________.

A) dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues
B) plasma; formed elements
C) elastic cartilage; hyaline cartilage
D) spongy bone: compact bone
E) adipose tissue; reticular tissue

A) dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues

7) Where would you find the highest concentration of dendritic cells in the integument?

A) stratum basale
B) papillary layer of the dermis
C) stratum granulosum
D) stratum spinosum
E) stratum corneum

D) stratum spinosum

8) Rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the air sacs of the lungs takes place through ____________ epithelium.

A) simple squamous
B) simple cuboidal
C) pseudostratified columnar
D) keratinized stratified squamous
E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous

A) simple squamous

9) The layer of the epidermis that is absent in thin skin but found in thick skin is the __________.

A) stratum corneum
B) stratum spinosum
C) stratum lucidum
D) stratum granulosum
E) stratum basale

C) stratum lucidum

10) A gland with a rounded saclike secretory portion shaped almost like a flask is called ___________.

A) simple tubular
B) tubuloacinar
C) branched tubular
D) acinar or alveolar
E) compound tubular

D) acinar or alveolar

11) The perichondrium is a fibrous layer of tissue that surrounds the following type(s) of cartilage.
A) hyaline cartilage
B) elastic cartilage
C) fibrocartilage
D) only A
E) A and B

E) A and B

12) All cells in ___________ epithelium reach the basement membrane, but only cells that reach the apical surface have cilia.

A) simple columnar
B) stratified columnar
C) stratified cuboidal
D) pseudostratified columnar
E) stratified squamous

D) pseudostratified columnar

13) The ________ exocrine gland stores its secretion until the glandular cell ruptures, whereas the ________ gland releases its apical region and reforms the product once secreted.

A) apocrine; holocrine
B) eccrine; endocrine
C) holocrine; apocrine
D) eccrine; apocrine
E) holocrine; eccrine

C) holocrine; apocrine

14) Skin covering the _________ has sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands.

A) forearm
B) buttocks
C) abdomen
D) fingertips

D) fingertips

15) Which of the following tissues are considered avascular?

A) Epithelium of the skin
B) Cartilage
C) A and B
D) All connective tissues
E) Bone

C) A and B

16) Which of the following cells is not present in connective tissue?

A) goblet cells
B) fibroblasts
C) neutrophils
D) mast cell
E) macrophages

A) goblet cells

17) Which of the following is not a feature that connective tissues have in common?

A) Very visible fibers
B) The presence of fibroblasts
C) The presence of collagen
D) Ground substance with a gelatinous to rubbery consistency
E) A calcified matrix

E) A calcified matrix

18) During which phase of hair growth does hair follicles shrink and hair growth slows?

A) Telogen
B) Anagen
C) Catagen
D) Exogen
E) keratohyalin

C) Catagen

19) The ___________ cells are responsible for skin color and are mainly located in the _____________.

A) melanocyte; stratum basale
B) keratinocyte; stratum spinosum
C) dendritic; stratum spinosum
D) melanocyte; stratum granulosum
E) keratinocyte; stratum corneum

A) melanocyte; stratum basale

20) Which of the following is not a feature of epithelial tissue?

A) Basement membrane
B) Intercellular junctions
C) Avascular
D) Apical surface
E) Abundant extracellular matrix

E) Abundant extracellular matrix

21) Which of the following is not part of the skin?

A) Epidermis
B) Papillary layer
C) Hypodermis
D) Stratum basale
E) Dermis

C) Hypodermis

22) Which skin color is most likely to result from decreased blood flow to skin?

A) Erythema
B) Hematoma
C) Albinism
D) Jaundice
E) Pallor

E) Pallor

23) The innermost serous membrane surrounding the lungs in the thoracic cavity is called __________.

A) visceral pericardium
B) visceral pleura
C) parietal pleura
D) parietal pericardium
E) visceral peritoneum

B) visceral pleura

24) Blood vessels in the ________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition.

A) hair bulb
B) hair root
C) hair shaft
D) dermal papilla
E) medulla of hair

D) dermal papilla

25) Where are chondrocytes and osteocytes located?

A) In plasma
B) In lacunae
C) In bone
D) In cartilage
E) In muscle

B) In lacunae

26) In the intestine, _________ensure(s) that most digested nutrients pass through the epithelial cells
and not between them.

A) tight junctions
B) desmosomes
C) the plasma membrane
D) gap (communicating) junctions
E) ground substance

A) tight junctions

27) The four primary tissue types in adult organs include all of the following except __________ tissue.

A) connective
B) fibrous
C) nervous
D) epithelial
E) muscular

B) fibrous

28) Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins, microbes, and other pathogens?

A) Keratinocytes
B) Melanocytes
C) Adipocytes
D) Dendritic cells
E) Tactile cells

D) Dendritic cells

29) Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in _________.

A) UV radiation exposure
B) the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood
C) the type and quantity of melanin produced
D) the number of melanocytes
E) the number of keratinocytes

C) the type and quantity of melanin produced

30) A connective tissue differs from an epithelial tissue in that connective tissue

A) is composed of cells that can be described as squamous or cuboidal.
B) is composed primarily of a nonliving extracellular matrix which is located between the cells.
C) is composed of cells interconnected by gap junctions or adhesion junctions.
D) is composed of cells supported by a basement membrane.
E) can produce and secrete products into the bloodstream.

B) is composed primarily of a nonliving extracellular matrix which is located between the cells.

1) What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common?

A) These joints are found only in the appendicular skeleton
B) These joints are all synovial joints
C) These are all bony joints joined by cartilage
D) These are all fibrous joints
E) These are cartilaginous joints

D) These are all fibrous joints

2) Which of the following is the most abundant inorganic component of the bone matrix?

A) Proteoglycans
B) carbon carbonate
C) Hydroxyapatite
D) Collagen
E) Hyaluronic acid

C) Hydroxyapatite

3) Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except___________.

A) DNA synthesis
B) exocytosis
C) blood clotting
D) muscle contraction
E) communication among neurons

A) DNA synthesis

4) Which of the following is not an anatomical component of a synovial joint?

A) articular cartilage
B) joint cavity
C) fibrous capsule
D) synovial membrane
E) synapse

E) synapse

5) Which of the following conditions is due to an autoimmune disease?

A) Muscular dystrophy and osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Osteoarthritis
E) Sprains

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

6) Which of the following actions decreases the joint angle?

A) flexion
B) extension
C) abduction
D) adduction
E) hyperextension

A) flexion

7) Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of ________________ of the metaphysis.

A) reserve cartilage
B) cell proliferation
C) cell hypertrophy
D) calcification

B) cell proliferation

8) The anatomical features of the synovial joint that aid in the reduction of friction are ___________.

A) articular cartilage, ligaments and bursa
B) synovial fluid and tendon sheath
C) synovial fluid, articular cartilage and bursa
D) synovial membrane and ligaments
E) synovial fluid, ligaments and bursa

C) synovial fluid, articular cartilage and bursa

9) Which of the following statements regarding calcium homeostasis is not true?

A) Blood calcium concentration is increased by parathyroid hormone.
B) Reduction of osteoclast activity helps restore high blood calcium concentration to normal levels.
C) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone have opposing effects on blood calcium concentration.
D) Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone have opposing effects on blood calcium concentration.
E) all of the above are true

D) Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone have opposing effects on blood calcium concentration.

10) Raising an arm to one side of the body to stop a taxi is an example of ____________ of the shoulder.

A) abduction
B) adduction
C) circumduction
D) rotation
E) extension

A) abduction

11) Which of the functional classifications of joints allow for partial movement?

A) Diarthroses
B) Synarthroses
C) Fibrous
D) Amphiarthroses
E) Synovial

D) Amphiarthroses

12) Blood calcium deficiency stimulates _________ secretion, which leads to __________.

A) calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption
B) calcitriol; more urinary calcium excretion
C) parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity
D) parathyroid hormone; increased osteoblast activity
E) thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion

C) parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity

13) A monoaxial joint, like the elbow, is capable of which one of the following movements?

A) circumduction
B) supination and pronation
C) flexion and extension
D) rotation
E) adduction

C) flexion and extension

14) During bone repair to fix a fracture, a _____________ forms first and then __________ replace it with a bony callus.

A) cartilage callus; osteoclasts
B) cartilage callus; osteoblasts
C) primary bone; osteoblasts
D) cartilage callus; osteocyte
E) bony callus; osteoclasts

B) cartilage callus; osteoblasts

15) The surgical procedure which involves the replacement of a joint is called ____________.

A) Angioplasty
B) Arthroscopy
C) Arthroplasty
D) Anterior dislocation
E) Arthrodesis

C) Arthroplasty

16) A person with a thyroid tumor that secretes excessive amounts of calcitonin would potentially cause

A) an elevated level of osteoclast activity
B) an elevated level of osteoblast activity
C) a reduced rate of endochondral ossification
D) a rise in blood calcium concentration
E) increasingly brittle bones

B) an elevated level of osteoblast activity

17) Which of the following bones is not a flat bone?

A) frontal bone of the skull
B) sternum
C) scapula
D) rib
E) metacarpal

E) metacarpal

18) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.

A) Diaphysis
B) Epiphysis
C) Metaphysis
D) Periosteum
E) Marrow

B) Epiphysis

19) Which of the following is false concerning the endochondral ossification process

A) Endochondral ossification is the more common method of bone formation
B) Long bones usually develop by this method during fetal development
C) Healing bones usually use this method of bone formation
D) It involves bone formation directly from mesenchymal connective tissue
E) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a cartilage model with a perichondrium

D) It involves bone formation directly from mesenchymal connective tissue

20) A(n) ________ is a sac of fluid associated with a synovial joint.

A) articular sac
B) synovial vesicle
C) bursa
D) meniscus
E) joint cavity

C) bursa

21) The bone cell performing osteolysis during bone remodeling is called ______________.

A) osteoclast
B) osteoblast
C) osteocyte
D) osteogenic cell
E) osteon

A) osteoclast

22) Which of the following lamellae is not found in compact bone tissue?

A) concentric lamellae
B) interstitial lamellae
C) basal lamellae
D) circumferential lamellae
E) all are found in bone

C) basal lamellae

23) The __________ is not part of all synovial joints but is damaged when someone has a _________injury.

A) labrum; SLAP
B) labrum; dislocation
C) bursa; labrum
D) bursa; SLAP
E) articular cartilage; dislocation

A) labrum; SLAP

24) Bone growth in length from within the bone is called _______ growth, and bone growth in diameter is called _________ growth.

A) elongation; widening
B) interstitial; appositional
C) appositional; elongation
D) interstitial; endochondral
E) appositional; interstitial

B) interstitial; appositional

25) All of the following synovial joints are biaxial except _________.

A) condylar
B) saddle
C) plane
D) pivot
E) all are biaxial

D) pivot

26) The result of blood calcitriol levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bone called __________ in children and ___________ in adults.

A) osteomalacia; rickets
B) osteomalacia; osteoporosis
C) rickets; osteoporosis
D) rickets; osteomalacia
E) osteopenia; rickets

D) rickets; osteomalacia

27) Find the false statement below, if any, concerning bone tissue

A) Spongy bone make up flat bones and the expanded ends of long bones
B) Spongy bone consists of osteons, while compact bone contains trabeculae
C) Compact bone makes up most of the shafts of long bones
D) Bone tissue heals well, due to its extensive blood supply
E) There is no false statement above; a-d are all true of bone tissue

B) Spongy bone consists of osteons, while compact bone contains trabeculae

28) While standing, star gazing requires__________.

A) elevation of the mandible
B) extension of the neck
C) flexion of the neck

D) hyperextension of the neck
E) abduction of the neck

D) hyperextension of the neck