Aircraft Systems and Navigational Aids

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/98

flashcard set

Earn XP

Description and Tags

An in depth Piper Archer II flashcard is in a different folder

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

99 Terms

1
New cards

What type of engine does the Archer II have? What does each letter mean?

Lycoming O-360-A4M or CL4HAND

C Carbureted

L Lycoming

4 4-Stroke

H Horizontally Opposed

A Air Cooled

N Naturally Aspirated

D Direct Drive

*360 is the engines total piston displacement in cubic inches

2
New cards

What is the skin of the Piper Archer made of?

Aluminum Alloy

3
New cards

What kind of structure does the Piper Archer have?

Semi-Monocoque:

4
New cards

What type of ailerons do we have? Why?

Differential Ailerons: They deflect up further than they deflect down which helps with Adverse Yaw

5
New cards

What is an anti-servo tab?

A small surface attached to the Stabilator which deflect further to prevent the pilot from overcontrolling the aircraft. It also serves as a trim tab.

6
New cards

What types of flaps do we have?

Slotted flaps, which help re-energize the air below the wing with the air on top. Helps reduce stall speed.

7
New cards

What is the manufacturer and diameter of our propeller?

Sensenich and 76 inches in diameter.

8
New cards

What oil do we use during the first 50 hours of engine use? What is used after?

Mineral Oil, then Ashless Dispersant

9
New cards

What type of oil sump does our aircraft have?

Wet-Type oil sump, meaning it stores the oil in a case below the engine. A dry-type stores it in a different container.

10
New cards

What type of oil do we use?

S.A.E. 40

11
New cards

What is our maximum Ramp, Takeoff, and Landing Weight?

Ramp: 2558

Takeoff: 2550

Landing: 2550

12
New cards

What are the two principles of gyroscopes?

Rigidity in Space: Maintain orientation in space and resists changes.

Precession: A force applied to the gyroscopic will be felt 90 degrees in the rotation of the gyroscope

13
New cards

Which instruments usually use a gyroscope?

Attitude Indicator and the Heading Indicator

14
New cards

What is the difference between a Turn Coordinator and a Turn-and-Slip Indicator

Turn Coordinator shows rate-of-turn and rate of roll, while the Turn-and-Slip Indicator shows only the rate of roll.

15
New cards

What are our Pitot-Static instruments?

Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator, and Vertical Speed Indicator

16
New cards

How does the Altimeter work?

The casing of the altimeter uses outside air pressure, while the aneroid wafer inside the casing expands and contracts as the static port fills outside air into the casing.

17
New cards

How does the aneroid wafer expanding and contracting translate to an altitude?

When the aneroid wafer contracts that means the aircraft is descending or at a lower altitude, while expansion means the aircraft is climbing/high altitude.

18
New cards

What is a “Sensitive Altimeter”? What is the window that displays the pressure setting called?

An altimeter with an altimeter setting knob. Kollsman Window.

19
New cards

When flying for an area of high to low pressure what should you keep in mind?

Flying high to low without adjusting your altimeter setting will result in your altimeter indicating higher, causing a pilot to fly lower than desired.

20
New cards

Name and define each type of altitude:

Indicated: Uncorrected altitude indicated when altimeter set to local pressure setting

Pressure: Altitude above standard pressure

Density: Pressure altitude corrected for non-temperature

Absolute: Height above the ground

True: Altitude above Mean Sea Level

21
New cards

How does the Vertical Speed Indicator work?

A diaphragm inside the instrument receives static air, the casing also receives air but has a calibrated leak (~6-9 seconds) which keeps old air inside for a short while this allows the diaphragm to expand and contract as you climb/descend

22
New cards

How does the Airspeed Indicator work?

The ASI measures the difference between incoming ram air from the pitot tube, and ambient pressure from the static port, the result is an airspeed indication or dynamic pressure.

Inside the instrument a diaphragm receives ram pressure, the outside receiving static pressure. The compression and expansion of this diaphragm translates to airspeed.

23
New cards

Name and define each type of speed:

Indicated: What the instrument displays

Calibrated: IAS corrected for instrument & position errors

Equivalent: CAS corrected for compressibility errors

  • When going extremely fast

True (TAS): Actual speed of the aircraft through the air, CAS corrected for non-standard temp and pressure

Ground Speed: Speed over the ground, also TAS corrected for wind

24
New cards
<p>What does each airspeed indication mean?</p>

What does each airspeed indication mean?

White Arc: Flaps extended speed, between Vso - Vfe

Green Arc: Normal operating range, starts at Vs1 and ends at Vno

Yellow Arc: Caution range, fly only in smooth air

Red line: Vne

25
New cards

What is all of our Vspeeds?

Vso: 45

Vs1: 50

Vr: 60

Vx: 64

Vy: 76

Vref: 76

Vfe: 102

Va: 89-113

Vno: 125

Vne: 154

26
New cards

What happens if the Pitot Tube is blocked (Static is clear)?

ASI: Reads Zero

Altimeter: Nothing

VSI: Nothing

27
New cards

What happens if the Pitot Tube and Drain Hole are blocked?

ASI: Increased with altitude

Altimeter: Nothing

VSI: Nothing

28
New cards

What happens if the Static Port is blocked (Pitot is clear)?

ASI: Decreases with altitude

Altimeter: Frozen in place

VSI: Reads Zero

29
New cards

What are some ways you can remedy an inaccurate Altimeter or VSI?

Using the Alternate Static Source, breaking the VSI glass if that does not work

30
New cards

Why do we have to constantly align the Heading Indicator with the Magnetic Compass?

Because of Precession

31
New cards

What are the magnetic compass errors and limitations?

D Deviation

V Variation

M Magnetic Dip

O Oscillation

N North/South turn errors (UNOS)

A Acceleration errors (ANDS)

32
New cards

What is an Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS)?

Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data

33
New cards

What is an Air Data Computer (ADC)?

Replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments, ADC receives input from pitot, static, and outside temp ports, and computes: airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

34
New cards

What is a flight director?

Computes and displays purple bars over the attitude to help in flight

35
New cards

What is a Flight Management Systems?

Receives input from various systems and sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director.

36
New cards

What is an Electronic Flight Instrument System?

A Glass Cockpit

37
New cards

What is a Primary Flight Display (PFD)?

Displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI, and heading as well as rate tapes.

38
New cards

What is a Multi-Function Display (MFD)?

Display secondary information, like maps, system status, weather, and traffic. Can also be used as a backup for other displays.

39
New cards

When is an approved flotation device for each occupant, and at least pyrotechnic signaling device?

When operating for hire over water and are beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

40
New cards

What frequencies are reserved for VORs?

108.0 to 117.95 MHz excluding 108.10-111.95 with odd tenths for LOC frequencies

41
New cards

What is the VOR MON (Minimum Operation Network) do?

A program that ensures that as old VORs are phased out, a MON airport (with legacy ILS or VOR approaches) is available within 100 NM is available regardless of aircraft position in the CONUS.

42
New cards

What are the different VOR Receiver Checks?

V VOT: ± 4

O Over a prominent landmark, minimum 20 NM at a reasonably low altitude: ± 6

D Dual: ± 4

G Ground: ± 4

A Airborne: ± 6

43
New cards

What is the required information needed to be logged after a VOR check?

DEPS

D Date

E Error (bearing error)

P Place

S Signature

44
New cards

What are the limitations that a VOR has?

Cone of confusion, reverse sensing, and it requires line of sight between the aircraft and station.

45
New cards

What is the service volume for a Terminal VOR?

Radius: 25 NM

Altitude: 1,000-12,000’

<p>Radius: 25 NM</p><p>Altitude: 1,000-12,000’</p>
46
New cards

What is the service volume for a Low VOR?

Layer 2: 70 NM from 5,000’ to 18,000’

Layer 1: 40 NM from 1,000’ to 5,000’

<p>Layer 2: 70 NM from 5,000’ to 18,000’</p><p>Layer 1: 40 NM from 1,000’ to 5,000’</p>
47
New cards

What is the service volume for a High VOR?

Layer 5: 100 NM from 45,000’ to 60,000’

Layer 4: 130 NM from 18,000’ to 45,000’

Layer 3: 100 NM from 14,500’ to 18,000’

Layer 2: 70 NM from 5,000’ to 14,500’

Layer 1: 40 NM from 1,000’ to 5,000’

<p>Layer 5: 100 NM from 45,000’ to 60,000’</p><p>Layer 4: 130 NM from 18,000’ to 45,000’</p><p>Layer 3: 100 NM from 14,500’ to 18,000’</p><p>Layer 2: 70 NM from 5,000’ to 14,500’</p><p>Layer 1: 40 NM from 1,000’ to 5,000’</p>
48
New cards

What frequencies does DME occupy?

962-1213 MHz

49
New cards

How does DME work?

The aircraft transmits an “interrogation” signal which is received and replied to by the ground DME facility. The airborne unit then calculates the slant range distance to the station based on reply time.

50
New cards

What is slant range error? When is it negligible?

When over the DME facility instead of displaying 0 it displays 1. That is because for every 1 NM the aircraft should be 1,000’ of altitude. So it would be negligible at distances like 5 NM at 5,000’.

51
New cards

What is the service volume for DME Low (DL)?

Layer 2: 130 NM from 12,900’ to 18,000

Layer 1: From the surface to 12,900’ you need LOS

<p>Layer 2: 130 NM from 12,900’ to 18,000</p><p>Layer 1: From the surface to 12,900’ you need LOS</p>
52
New cards

What is the service volume for DME High (DH)?

Layer 3: 100 NM from 45,000’ to 60,000’ ATH

Layer 2: 130 NM from 12,900’ to 45,000’

Layer 1: From the surface to 12,900’ you need LOS

*ATH = Above Transmitter Height

<p>Layer 3: 100 NM from 45,000’ to 60,000’ ATH</p><p>Layer 2: 130 NM from 12,900’ to 45,000’</p><p>Layer 1: From the surface to 12,900’ you need LOS</p><p></p><p>*ATH = Above Transmitter Height</p>
53
New cards

What is an ADF?

An Automatic Direction Finder which points towards the NDB

54
New cards

What are the NDB Service Volume Classes?

Compass Locator: 15 NM

Medium High (MH): 25 NM

High (H): 50 NM (Or less, see NOTAM or Chart Supplement)

High High (HH): 75 NM

55
New cards

What is a compass locator?

A low powered NDB installed at the OM or MM on some ILS approaches.

56
New cards

How does an ADF work?

You tune in an NDB station on the ADF, the instrument will then show the direction of that NDB. Some ADF’s show the bearing relative to North, some show relative to aircraft.

57
New cards

What is a Localizer? What is its range of frequencies?

A part of a landing system that gives later course guidance. 108.1-119.95 MHz with odd tenths only

58
New cards

Draw what a Localizer looks like:

knowt flashcard image
59
New cards

Draw what an ILS looks like:

knowt flashcard image
60
New cards

What is the width of the LOC?

Between 3 to 6 degrees, this is so the width at the threshold is 700’ wide

61
New cards

What is the coverage range of a LOC?

First 10 NM: 35 degrees to each side of the centerline

Last 18 NM: 10 degrees from each side of the LOC antenna up to 4,500’

62
New cards

How does the glide slop know how high or low the aircraft is?

Vertical position is interpreted by the intensity of the 90 and 150 Hz signal carried over the UHF frequency and directed above and under the slope

63
New cards

What is the width of the glide slope?

Width is 1.4 degrees, full deflection is 0.7 degrees.

<p>Width is 1.4 degrees, full deflection is 0.7 degrees.</p>
64
New cards

What is the range of the glideslope?

Up to 10 NM

65
New cards

What is a “False Glideslope”?

A secondary glide slope above the actual one. This false glide slope has a very steep descent rate inconsistent with an actual glide slope.

66
New cards

What does the Outer Marker Mean? How can we identify it from the others?

Usually 4-7 miles out and indicates when the GS should be captured.

  • Morse Code: “- - -”

67
New cards

What does the Middle Marker Mean? How can we identify it from the others?

Usually ~3,500’ from the runway (200’ above TDZE), and is at when the GS meets the DA.

  • Morse Code: “. - . -”

68
New cards

What does the Inner Marker Mean? How can we identify it from the others?

Between the Runway Threshold and Middle Marker, also indicates GS and DA intersection on CAT II ILS.

  • Morse Code: “. . .”

69
New cards

What does the Back Course Marker Mean? How can we identify it from the others?

Indicates FAF on selected back course approaches

  • Morse Code: “.. ..”

70
New cards

What is an Approach Light System?

Basic visible indications between instrument guided flight into a visual approach.

Precision: 2,400’-3,000’

Non-Precision: 1,400’-1,500’

71
New cards

How far from the landing area does ALS for a Non-Precision Approach Runway extend?

2,400’ to 3,000’

72
New cards

How far from the landing area does ALS for a Precision Approach Runway extend?

1,400’ to 1,500’

73
New cards

What is the lowest visibility for each category of ILS?

<p></p>
74
New cards

What is RNAV?

Area Navigation that allows flying any desired path, without needing to overfly ground-based facilities.

75
New cards

What are the types of RNAV?

Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)

VOR/DME RNAV

DME/DME RNAV

Inertial Reference Unit/System (IRU/IRS)

76
New cards

What is RNAV VNAV and BARO-VNAV?

1. Vertical Navigation Guidance

2. An RNAV system that uses barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance

77
New cards

What are the types of published RNAV routes?

Q-Routes: FL180-FL450

T-Routes: 1,200’ AGL-18,000’ MSL

*Both designated as RNAV 2 unless charted as RNAV 1

78
New cards

What type of RNAV routes do we fly?

T-Routes

79
New cards

What is Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB)?

The published bearing between two waypoint on an RNAV route?

80
New cards

How many satellites make up the GPS constellation?

Minimum 24 orbiting at 10,900 NM, designed so 5 are at view at any time.

81
New cards

How many satellites are required for 2D and 3D position?

2D: 3 Satellites

3D: 4 Satellites (Latitude, Longitude, and Altitude)

82
New cards

What is Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)?

A function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals

83
New cards

How does RAIM Fault Detection work?

Requires minimum of 5 satellites or 4 + baro-aided RAIM to detect a faulty signal

84
New cards

How does RAIM Fault Exclusion work?

To eliminate a corrupt satellite RAIM needs an additional satellite (6 or 5 + baro-aid), the new satellite replaces the corrupt one

85
New cards

What is great-circle navigation?

Computes the shortest path between two points

86
New cards

Can GPS substitute ADF or DME?

Yes, except for ADF on an NDB approach without GPS overlay (“or GPS” in the title)

87
New cards

How can a pilot make sure RAIM is available for the entire flight?

By using the FAA’s RAIM prediction tool, and checking GPS NOTAMS

88
New cards

What is GPS Augmentation System or Differential GPS (DGPS)?

Improve the accuracy of GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at knows locations and transmitting these errors to GPS receivers.

89
New cards

What is Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS)?

SBAS improves accuracy, integrity and availability by having ground stations measure GPS errors that then produce correction signals received by satellites which then are sent to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers.

  • Facilitates APV approaches like LPV LNAV/VNAV and non precision LP approaches

90
New cards

What is Ground Based Augmentation System (formerly Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS))?

Errors broadcasted via VHF to GBAS-enabled GPS receivers, more accurate than WAAS but covers a smaller area.

  • Allows for Cat I and above approaches to GLS DA minima

91
New cards

What is Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?

A statement of navigation equipment and service performance, RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting

  • All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches

92
New cards

What does it mean when an approach has RNAV (RNP)?

It means the approach is “Authorization Required” and need special permission from the FAA for the crew, aircraft, and operation.

  • Other countries may have “RNP” in the approach title without needing permission

93
New cards

What are the different types of RNP approach minimums?

GLS: DA using GBAS

LP: MDA

LPV: DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS

LNAV/VNAV: DA achieved by VNAV approved WAAS, or BARO-VNAV systems

LNAV: MDA achieved by basic un-augmented IFR-approved GPS

94
New cards

What is PBN (Performance Based Navigation)?

The general basis for navigation equipment standards in terms of accuracy for specific situations (approach, enroute, missed approach).

95
New cards

What is the RNP accuracy for Enroute, Terminal & Departure, and Final Approach?

Enroute: 2 NM 95% of flight time

Terminal & Departure: 1 NM 95% of flight time

Final Approach: 0.3 NM 95% of flight time

96
New cards

What is Advanced RNP (A-RNP)?

A higher standard mandatory for RNP AR

97
New cards

What are the types of precision approaches?

ILS - Instrument Landing System

PAR - Precision Approach Radar

GLS - GBAS Landing System

98
New cards

What are the types of Non-Precision approaches?

VOR

NDB

RNAV/RNP to LNAV or LP minima

LOC - Localizer

LDA - Localizer-type Directional Aid

SDF - Simplified Directional Facility: Similar to a LOC with 6 or 12 degree width, may be aligned or not with the runway

ASR - Approach Surveillance Radar

99
New cards

What is an APV and what are the different types of Approaches with Vertical Guidance (APV)?

A precision-like approach, flown to a DA with lateral + vertical guidance but does not meet precision approach standards

  • RNAV/GNSS (LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima)

  • LDA with Glide Slope