L41: VBD and viruses in equine

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
Locked
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/101

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 9:16 PM on 9/20/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai
Chat

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

102 Terms

1
New cards

What agent causes Potomac Fever?

Neorickettsia risticci

2
New cards

What type of agent is Potomac Fever?

Trematode

3
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Potomac Fever?

Aquatic snails

4
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Potomac Fever?

Monocytes • Macrophages • Enterocytes

5
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Potomac Fever?

PCR on blood or feces

6
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Potomac Fever?

  • Profuse watery diarrhea

  • laminitis

  • Anorexia

  • Colic

  • Fever


7
New cards

What is the treatment for Potomac Fever?

  • IV oxytetracycline I

  • V fluids

  • NSAIDS

  • Cyrotherapy (laminitis)


8
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Potomac Fever?

Remove from water sources

Isolate cases

9
New cards

What prognosis note is listed for Potomac Fever?

Guarded prognosis if complication like severe laminitis develop

10
New cards

What agent causes Lyme Disease?

Borelia burforferi

11
New cards

What type of agent is Lyme Disease?

Spirochete (Bacteria)

12
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Lyme Disease?

Ixodes tick

13
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Lyme Disease?

  1. Leukocytes

  2. Synovial lining cells


14
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Lyme Disease?

  1. PCR of bursal fluid

  2. OpsC test


15
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Lyme Disease?

  1. Neurborreliosis

  2. Cranial nerve deficits

  3. Neck and back stiffness

  4. Uveitis

  5. Cutaneous pseudolymphoma

  6. Stiffness

  7. Shifting leg lameness

  8. Muscle Wasting

  9. Hyperesthesia

  10. Nuchal bursitis


16
New cards

What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?

  1. Seropositive horses with clinical signs with other potentials ruled out receive treatment

  2. Penicillin

  3. Ceftiofur

  4. Tetracyclines (nephrotoxicity and NEVER give IM)


17
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Lyme Disease?

  1. Tick control (early spring and fall greatest risk)

  2. Canine lyme vaccines off-label (2-3 doses)


18
New cards

Is Lyme Disease zoonotic according to the table?

Zoonotic

19
New cards

What agent causes Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

Anaplasma phagocytolium

20
New cards

What type of agent is Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

Gram-negative obligate intracellular bacterium

21
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

Ixodes tick

22
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

Leukocytes

23
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

  1. Thrombocytopenia

  2. Neutropenia

  3. Active Infection: PCR on blood during fever; Giemsa stain of blood

  4. Chronic infection: IFAT on serum; Can remain negative for up to 3 weeks


24
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

  1. Fever

  2. Stiffness

  3. Limb edema

  4. Anorexia

  5. Icterus


25
New cards

what will be seen on CBC in a horse with Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

  1. Severe leukopenia

  2. Thrombocytopenia

  3. Mild anemia

  4. Neutropenia


26
New cards

What is the treatment for Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

  1. Oxytetracycline IV

  2. Doxycycline/Minocycline

  3. Immunity is approximately 1 year


27
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

  1. Tick control

  2. Synthetic pyrethroids

  3. Cypermethrin

  4. Regular inspection for ticks


28
New cards

How long after a tick bite does bacteremia develop in Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

Bactermia develops 5-7 days after tick bite

29
New cards

What immune response is caused by Granulocytic Anaplasmosis?

Causes a TH1 immune response

30
New cards

Is Granulocytic Anaplasmosis zoonotic according to the table?

Zoonotic

31
New cards

What agent causes Rickettsia?

Rickettsia raoulti

32
New cards

What type of agent is Rickettsia?

Gram-negative obligate intracellular bacterium

33
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Rickettsia?

Ticks

34
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Rickettsia?

Endothelial Cells

35
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Rickettsia?

  1. ELISA

  2. PCR


36
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Rickettsia?

Often asymptomatic

37
New cards

What is the treatment for Rickettsia?

Oxytetracycline

38
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Rickettsia?

Tick control

39
New cards

Is Rickettsia zoonotic according to the table?

Zoonotic

40
New cards

What agent causes Piroplasmosis?

  1. Babesia cabelli

  2. Theileria equi


41
New cards

What type of agent is Piroplasmosis?

Protozoa

42
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Piroplasmosis?

Ticks

43
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Piroplasmosis?

Erythrocytes

44
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Piroplasmosis if a horse is being imported or exported?

cELISA and IFAT

45
New cards

what diagnostic tests are used for chronic or subclinical cases of piroplasmosis?

cELISA and CFT

46
New cards

what diagnostic test is used for acute cases of piroplasmosis?

combination of blood smear, PCR, and paired serology (second sample 14-21 days later)

47
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Piroplasmosis?

  1. High fever

  2. Severe anemia

  3. Jaundice

  4. Lethargy

  5. Reduced appetite


48
New cards

What is the treatment for Piroplasmosis?

  1. Imidocarb dipropinate IM (CANNOT GIVE TO DONKEYS)

  2. Pre-treatment with antispasmodics may be necessary


49
New cards

what is the protocol time for treatment for piroplasmosis caused by T. equi?

4 injections at 72 hour intervals

50
New cards

what is the protocol time for treatment for piroplasmosis caused by B. caballi?

2 injections 24 hours apart

51
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Piroplasmosis?

  1. Report all positive and suspicious cases

  2. Isolate and quarantine all animals brought to US


52
New cards

What reporting status is listed for Piroplasmosis?

Reportable disease

53
New cards

When do clinical signs of Piroplasmosis usually appear after infection?

Clinical signs usually appear 5-28 days post infection

54
New cards

What agent causes Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

Lentivirus equinfane

55
New cards

What type of agent is Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

Retrovirus

56
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

  1. Horseflies

  2. Deer flies

  3. Iatrogenic

  4. Mom to foal

  5. Veneral


57
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

  1. Circulates in plasma

  2. Monocytes

  3. Macrophages


58
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

Coggins Test (serologically convert 16-42 days post-infection)

59
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

  1. Fever

  2. Depression

  3. Jaundice/pale MM

  4. Petechiations

  5. Ecchymoses

  6. Edema


60
New cards

What is the treatment for Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

None

61
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

  1. Test Yearly

  2. Vector control

  3. Do not share needles


62
New cards

What carrier status is listed for Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

Infected horses become life long carriers requiring euthanasia or strict isolation

63
New cards

What types of hemolysis are listed for Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

Intravascular and extravascular hemolysis

64
New cards

What platelet effect is listed for Equine Infectious Anemia Virus?

Immune-mediated destruction of platelets

65
New cards

What agent causes Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

Equine arteritis virus (EAV)

66
New cards

What type of agent is Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

Enveloped positive-sense ssRNA virus (Arteriviridae)

67
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

  1. Respiratory secretions/aerosols during acute infection

  2. venereal transmission via semen from persistently infected stallions


68
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

Early: CD14+ monocytes and some T lymphocytes

69
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

RT-PCR

70
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

  1. Many horses are asymptomatic

  2. Fever

  3. depression

  4. anorexia

  5. nasal discharge

  6. cough

  7. conjunctivitis/lacrimation

  8. periorbital and limb/abdominal edema

  9. abortion in mares

  10. severe disease/death can occur in young foals


71
New cards

What is the treatment for Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

None

72
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

  1. Vaccinate in horses

  2. Biosecurity of incoming animals


73
New cards

What reservoir/shedding note is listed for Equine Viral Arteritivirus?

Carrier stallions are a major reservoir and can shed virus in semen for prolonged periods

74
New cards

What agent causes African Horse Sickness?

African horse sickness virus (AHSV)

75
New cards

What type of agent is African Horse Sickness?

Segmented double-stranded RNA Orbivirus

76
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread African Horse Sickness?

Culicoides biting midges

77
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by African Horse Sickness?

Vascular endothelial cells especially capillaries in the lungs and heart

78
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for African Horse Sickness?

RT-PCR on EDTA blood

79
New cards

What are the clinical signs of African Horse Sickness?

  1. High fever

  2. depression

  3. severe dyspnea

  4. frothy nasal discharge

  5. pulmonary edema

  6. cardiac form causes edema including characteristic supraorbital swelling

  7. Hydropericardium/pleural effusion may be present.


80
New cards

What is the treatment for African Horse Sickness?

None

Supportive care

81
New cards

What is the prevention/control for African Horse Sickness?

  1. Vaccine in endemic regions

  2. Vector control

  3. Quarantine


82
New cards

What reporting status is listed for African Horse Sickness?

Notifiable disease

83
New cards

What agent causes Hendravirus?

Hendra virus

84
New cards

What type of agent is Hendravirus?

Enveloped negative-sense ssRNA virus

85
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Hendravirus?

Bats

86
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Hendravirus?

  1. Strong tropism for vascular endothelial cells

  2. also affects pulmonary tissue

  3. can be neurotropic


87
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Hendravirus?

  1. PCR

  2. Serology

  3. Immunochemistry


88
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Hendravirus?

  1. Acute fever with rapid deterioration

  2. respiratory distress/tachypnea

  3. pulmonary edema

  4. frothy nasal discharge

  5. tachycardia

  6. depression/anorexia


89
New cards

What is the treatment for Hendravirus?

None

90
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Hendravirus?

Yearly booster

91
New cards

What reporting status is listed for Hendravirus?

Reportable

92
New cards

Is Hendravirus zoonotic according to the table?

Zoonotic

93
New cards

What agent causes Glanders?

Burkholderia mallei

94
New cards

What type of agent is Glanders?

Gram-negative facultative intracellular bacterium

95
New cards

What vector(s) or transmission route(s) spread Glanders?

Contact with skin lesions or inhaled/ingested secretions

96
New cards

What cells or tissues are affected by Glanders?

  1. Respiratory mucosa/lungs

  2. Skin


97
New cards

What diagnostic test(s) are used for Glanders?

  1. Screening: complement fixation test (CFT)

  2. Competitive ELISA/Western blot can improve specificity

  3. PCR and culture can confirm clinical cases

  4. Mallein testing is used in some control programs/regions.


98
New cards

What are the clinical signs of Glanders?

  1. Nasal, pulmonary and cutaneous forms

  2. Fever • purulent nasal discharge

  3. nodules and ulcers of nasal mucosa

  4. pulmonary nodules/pneumonia

  5. Acute disease may be rapidly fatal

  6. chronic infection may persist.


99
New cards

What is the treatment for Glanders?

None

100
New cards

What is the prevention/control for Glanders?

  1. Rapid detection

  2. isolation/quarantine

  3. euthanasia/culling of confirmed cases

  4. No vaccine