Nuclear medicine exam review

Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult: A)30min B)1hr C)2-3hr D)24hr

C)2-3hr. Static bone imaging performed with a labeled diphosphonate compound is routinely performed 2-3hr after tracer administration.

Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults: A)anterior iliac crests B)glenoid fossa C)sternoclavicular joints D)all of the above

D)all the above. On bone images of adults, areas of normally increased tracer activity include all those listed as well as the sacroiliac, hip, and acromioclavicular joints and vertebral column.

Which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone image as a photopenic area: A)attenuation B)tracer infiltration C)acute myocardial infarction D)osteomyelitis

A)attenuation. A photopenic area is one in which a smaller number of photons is visualized-a cold spot. A material that absorbs photons may cause an attenuation artifact, an area of falsely decreased tracer concentration(jewelry, belt buckles, pacemaker)

It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected PE because: A)# of injected particles block only a small number of precapillary arterioles B)particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum

A)# of injected particles blocks only a small number of precapillary arterioles. Less than 1% of the precapillary arterioles are blocked with the MAA particles; therefore, there is no adverse effect on the patient.

A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals: A)81mKr gas B)133Xe gas C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-MAA

C)99mTc-pentetate. A nebulizer is a device that uses ultrasound or pressure to create airborne (aerosol) particles from a liquid.

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis in the lower extremities: A)99mTc-MAA B)99mTc-arcitumomab C)131I-iobenguane D)111In-oxyquinoline

A)99mTc-MAA is used to image acute deep-vein thrombosis in the lower extremities.

In performing radionuclide venography with 99mTc-MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is administered at what site: A)antecubital of either arm B)either femoral vein C)dorsal veins on top of each foot D)either basilic vein

C)dorsal vein on to of each foot. The tracer is introduced into the deep venous system of the legs. Therefore, the tracer is administered into the dorsal vein of each foot.

After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer concentration in which areas: A)liver, lungs, bones B)salivary glands, stomach, and bladder C)liver, salivary glands, stomach, lungs D)bladder, liver, brain

B) The salivary glands and saliva in the mouth, the gastric mucosa and secretions into the intestine, and the urinary bladder are sites that normally concentrate radioiodine. Concentrations in other sites indicate areas of functioning thyroid metastases.

A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following radioparmaceuticals: A)123I-sodium iodide B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-pertechnetate or 99mTc-sestamibi

C)99mTc-sestamibi

When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera toward the patient's feet separates what two structures: A)left ventricle and aorta B)left ventricle and left atrium C)left and right atria

B)left ventricle and left atrium. The left atrium is partially hidden by the aorta and pulmonary artery. Tilting the detector caudally visually brings the left atrium out from under these structures and separates it from the left ventricle.

Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system: A)99mTc-sestamibi B)99mTc-exametazime C)99mTc-medronate D)201Tl-thallous chloride

A)99mTc-sestamibi

A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body: A)3 B)6 C)10 D)12

C)10. A cardiac stress test requires a 12-lead ECG tracing, which uses 10 electrodes attached to the patient. 2 arm, 2 leg, and 6 chest leads.

Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a 99mTc-sulfer colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of: A)improper colloid particle size B)insufficient tracer circulation time C)liver dysfunction D)overactive bone marrow

C)liver dysfunction. Bone marrow uptake is visualized on liver/spleen images when severe liver dysfunction, such as advanced cirrhosis, is present.

During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present: A)common hepatic duct B)common bile duct C)gallbladder D)small intestine

C)gallbladder. If cystic duct obstruction is present, the tracer will be unable to enter the gallbladder. The cystic duct is the passage between the common bile duct and the gallbladder.

How long after the administration of 99mTc-pertechnetate does imaging begin for the localization of a Meckel's diverticulum: A)immediately B)15-20min C)1hr D)2-3hr

A)immediately. For localization of a Meckel's diverticulum, imaging begins immediately after administration of the tracer.

All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriate for performing a left-to-right cardiac shunt exam using the first-pass method except: A)sulfur colloid B)pentetate C)sestamibi D)tetrofosmin

A)sulfur colloid. First-pass cardiac studies to identify or quantify left-to-right shunts are performed with radiopharmaceuticals that can be administered in small volumes of 20-25mCi.

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is measured with which radiopharmaceutical: A)99mTc-pentetate B)99mTc-succimer C)99mTc-gluceptate D)99mTc-meritiatide

A)99mTc-pentetate. Determination of GFR requires an agent that is completely filtered by the glomeruli. 99mTc-pentetate (DTPA) is handled only by glomerular filtration.

Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which radiopharmaceutical: A)99mTc-pentetate or medronate B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid C)99mTc-gluceptate or sulfur colloid D)99mTc-pertechnetate or mertiatide

B)99mTc-pertechnetate or sulfur colloid. Direct radionuclide cystography is performed by instilling 99mTc-pentetate, or sulfur colloid, into the urinary bladder. Imaging is performed as the bladder is filling and emptying.

Filtered 99mTc-sulfur colloid is required for which of the following examinations: A)gastroesophageal reflux B)gastric emptying C)LeVeen shunt patency D)lymphoscintigraphy

D)lymphoscintigraphy. Although all procedures listed may be performed with 99mTc-sulfur colloid, only lymphoscintigraphy requires that sulfur colloid be filtered to remove the larger particles.

A patient with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the NM dept for an imaging procedure. The technologist should: A)confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction if required B)cancel study C)use the tube to administer tracer

A) Nasogastric tubes are used for gastric decompression. A physician must order the transfer and interruption of suction. The tech may be required to reestablish suction upon the patient's arrival in the department.

The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study: A)anterior cerebral arteries B)carotid arteries C)nasopharynx D)superior sagittal sinus

D)superior sagittal sinus. In a normal cerebral flow study, the first phase is the arterial phase, indicated by activity in the carotid and anterior cerebral arteries. The capillary phase is followed by the venous phase.

In performing cisternograpy, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain: A)the site of tracer administration B)the flow rate of the cerebral spinal fluid C)that the tracer was not infiltrated

C)that the tracer was not infiltrated. The injection site should be imaged first to confirm that the tracer has not infiltrated outside the subarachnoid space. Reinjections may be required if infiltration is confirmed.

On Wednesday a patient had a 125I thyroid study performed; a 125I plasma volume is ordered to be performed on Thursday. Should a baseline plasma sample be collected before performing the plasma volume? True or False

True. A blood sample collected before the 125I-albumin is injected can provide the background present in the patient's plasma. This will permit counts from the plasma sample containing 125I to be corrected for any residual 123I.

89Sr-chloride is used to treat which of the following conditions: A)bone pain B)polycythemia vera C)rheumatoid arthritis D)malignant effusions

A)bone pain. 89Sr-chloride is used to relieve bone pain resulting from skeletal metastases.

Whole-body imaging with 131I-sodium iodide is optimally performed how long after tracer administration: A)12hr B)18-24hr C)48-72hr D)96hr or longer

C)48-72hr. Although 131I whole-body imaging may be performed as early as 24hr, optimum images are obtained at 48-72hr after tracer administration.

During an imaging procedure a patient indicates a seizure is impending. The most appropriate action is: A)tell the patient to breathe deep to increase oxygen levels B)stop the procedure, have the patient lie on the floor with a pillow supporting the head

B)stop the procedure. Seizure patients may experience a warning that a seizure is about to occur. The tech should assist the patient to the floor and away from objects that may injure the patient. A pillow will cushion the head from the floor.

After administration of 111In-pentetreotide, which areas of the body should be imaged: A)anterior and posterior chest B)anterior and posterior abdomen C)anterior and posterior whole body

C)anterior and posterior whole body. Because the purpose of 111In-penetreotide imaging is to visualize the unknown primary site of the cancer or to demonstrate the extent of the disease, anterior and posterior whole-body images should be performed.

Which of the following is the initial positioning for visualizing gastrointestinal bleeding with labeled RBC's: A)xiphoid in middle of FOV B)symphysis pubis in middle of FOV C)lower border of liver and spleen at top of FOV

C)lower border of liver and spleen at top of FOV. RBC's labeled with 99mTc-pertechnetate are used for demonstrating intermittent lower GI bleeding.

Which of the tracers is preferred if a first-pass stress and rest cardiac function exam is to be performed on a patient: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)99mTc-medronate C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-sestamibi

C)99mTc-pentetate.

Patient preparation for breast imaging with 99mTc-sestamibi includes which of the following: A)explanation of the procedure B)fasting for 8hr before tracer administration C)discontinuation of any medications D)consumption of a fatty meal

A) There is no patient preparation for breast imaging with 99mTc-sestamibi except explanation of the procedure to the patient.

Historically, a Schilling test may be ordered for a patient with suspected: A)hemolytic anemia B)pernicious anemia C)iron deficiency anemia D)lymphocytic anemia

B)pernicious anemia. The Schilling test is used to measure the absorption of vitamin B-12 in patients with unexplained anemia. Pernicious anemia is a vitamin B-12 deficiency resulting from a lack of intrinsic factor.

The proper route of administration for a lymphoscintigrapy exam is: A)an intravenous injection B)orally C)an intrathecal injection D)a subcutaneous injection

D)a subcutaneous injection. Subcutaneous injections are needed for a lymphoscintigraphy to determine the sential node.

A patient's plasmacrit may be determined by: A)multiplying the patient's hematocrit by 0.9 B)subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1 C)finding the ratio of plasma volume to RBC volume D)dividing 1 by the decimal hematocrit

B)subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1. The hematocrit represents the portion of the blood made up of cellular components, and the plasmacrit represents the fluid portion. Together they comprise the total blood volume.

During a red cell sequestration study, counts are obtained from all of the following organs except: A)liver B)spleen C)heart D)kidneys

D)kidneys. Sequestration sites for RBC's include the liver and spleen. Cardiac counts are used as a standard. Renal areas are not counted.

In performing a plasma volume with 125I-albumn, 3 blood samples are collected a varying times after tracer administration and counted. These counts vs time are plotted on semilog graph paper. The purpose of this graph is to?

Correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical. There is leakage of the labeled albumin from the vascular system. The 3 blood samples provide the information needed to estimate the leakage rate and determine the plasma counts before any leakage occurred.

Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of antithyroid medication. Which of the following are antithyroid drugs: A)synthroid B)potassium perchlorate C)propylthiouracil D)thyroxine

C) Propylthiouracil (PTU) interferes with the organification of iodide by the thyroid gland and is on of the antithyroid drugs available to decrease thyroid hormone production.

During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient's antecubital vein. To maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?

Heparin. Injection of about 0.5mL of heparin is sufficient to maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing used during a red cell mass determination.

A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following radiopharmaceuticals: A)99mTc-medronate B)99mTc-disida C)99mTc-sulfur colloid D)99mTc-MAA

C)99mTc-sulfur colloid. Gastric-emptying studies involve combining 99mTc-sulfur colloid with eggs. (oatmeal)

In the case of insulinoma, which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may cause hypoglycemia: A)111In-pentetreotide B)99mTc-sestamibi C)67Ga-citrate D)18F-FDG

A)111In-pentetreiotide - binds to somatostatin receptors in certain tumors. In the case of suspected insulinoma, there is a potential for inducing severe hypoglycemia. For this reason, an intravenous infusion of glucose should be available.

Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with 18F-FDG: A)thyroid B)brain C)pituitary gland D)pancreas

B)brain. Structures normally visualized on an image performed with 18F-FDG include the brain, myocardium, liver, spleen, intestines, kidneys, and urine.

The 14C urea breath test is used to: A)detect the presence of peptic ulcers B)detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria C)identify gastric cancers D)rule out Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

B) The 14C urea breath test is used to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria. All patients with duodenal ulcers and 80% of patients with non-drug induced gastric ulcers are infected with H. pylori.

What is the patient's thyroid uptake @ 1500 if a 123I-sodium iodide capsule is administered to the patient and used as the standard: Capsule-216,789cpm @ 0900; Bkgd-92cpm @ 0900; Thyroid-94,954cpm @ 1500; Thigh-521cpm @ 1500; DF=0.73

60%. 216,789 x DF (0.73) = 158,256cpm standard @ 1500 % thyroid uptake = thyroid cpm - thigh cpm / standard cpm - bkg cpm x 100

If the elution efficiency of a 99Mo/99mTc generator is 96% and 11.7 MBq 99mTc is present on the column, approximately how much activity will be removed during elution?

11.2MBq

A dry-column generator is eluted with 5mL of saline, and the eluate containing 863mCi is collected into a 10mL evacuated vial. What is the concentration of the eluate?

172.6mCi/mL

If no eluate is obtained during generator elution, the technologist should next: A)attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial B)contact the generator manufacturer C)check the generator tubing for kinks or leaks D)add more saline to generator

A)attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial. Loss of vacuum from the elution vial is most likely the cause of this problem. Checking the tubing may cause increased radiation exposure.

According to the NRC, records of 99Mo concentration in 99mTc eluate must be maintained for how long: A)1year B)3 years C)5 years D)10 years

B)3 years. The NRC requires that records of 99Mo concentrations in 99mTc eluates be retained for 3 years.

According to the NRC, the concentration of what radionuclidic impurity must be determined after the first elution of a 99Mo/99mTc generator: A)Al B)free pertechnetate C)99Mo D)a and c

C)99Mo. Al is a chemical impurity and not subject to regulation by the NRC. Free pertechnetate is 99mTc-pertechnetate that is not bound to another compound. 99Mo is a radionuclidic impurity, a radionuclide other than the desired one in 99mTc eluate.

Based on the day's clinic schedule - Patient A:Renal function study; Patient B:Total-body bone image; Patient C:Meckel's diverticulum localization; Patient D:Hepatobiliary study - the tech should order or prepare what radiopharmaceuticals?

Patient A: 99mTc-mertiatide for renal Patient B: 99mTc-medronate for bone Patient C: 99mTc-pertechnetate for Meckel's Patient D: 99mTc-mebrofenin for hepatobiliary

According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for how long: A)3 years B)5 years C)10 years D)indefinitely

A) The NRC requires that records of written directives be maintained for 3 years.

According to the NRC, dose calibrator quality control testing should be performed how often for Constancy Linearity Accuracy Geometry

Constancy - daily before clinical use Linearity - installation and quarterly Accuracy - Annually Geometry - installation, service, or relocation

Based on the day's clinic schedule shown here: Patient A - Thyroid uptake and image Patient B - Therapy for hyperthyroidism Patient C - Cisternogram. The tech should prepare or order what radio-parmaceuticals?

131I-sodium iodide is the agent used for treatment of hyperthyroidism. 123I-sodium iodide is the agent of choice for thyroid uptake and may be used for imaging as well. 111In-pentetate is administered for cisternography.

If an MAA kit must be reconstituded with 3.5mL of 99mTc-pertechnetate, what are the consequences if only 2.0mL are added to the kit?

Patients will receive more MAA particles per milliliter of 99mTc-MAA. The volume added to an MAA kit governs the number of particles in each milliliter of radiopharmaceutical and, therefore, the number of particles the patient will receive.

Reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate is administered to the patient in which RBC labeling method: A)in vitro method B)in vivo method C)modified in vivo method D)both in vivo and modified in vivo method

D)in both the in vivo and modified in vivo techniques, reconstituted "cold" pyrophosphate, containing stannous ions that permit 99mTc-pertechnetate to permeate red cell membranes, is administered intravenously to the patient.

Which of the following radiopharmaceutical kit formulations is light sensitive: A)sestambi B)oxidronate C)mertiatide D)exametazime

C)mertiatide. The contents in the mertiatide reaction vial are light sensitive and must be protected from light.

When performing radiochromatography on a radiopharmaceutical sample, the solvent front is located 8.5cm from the origin and the radio-chemical impurity is at the origin. What is the R(f) value of the radio-chemical impurity: A)0 B)0.85 C)1.0 D)8.5

A)0. The R(f) value is the distance traveled by a given radio-chemical component compared with the solvent front.

According to the USP, to be administered to patients, most 99mTc-lableed radiopharmaceuticals should have a radio-chemical purity of at least what percentage: A)98% B)95% C)90% D)88%

C)90%. According to the USP, most 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals should have a radio-chemical purity of at least 90%.

A technologist must administer 8mCi 99mTc-mebrofenin to a patient at 1100. On the basis of the vial label information given what volume should be given. Calibration: 0700 Total act: 100mCi Total vol: 8.5mL Concentration: 11.8mCi/mL Expiration: 1500

1.1mL

A technologist must administer 37MBq 201Tl- thallous chloride at 1000 on Feb 16. What volume should be administered to the patient based on the following information: Calibration: Feb 14 @ 1200 Total act: 222MBq Total vol: 4mL Concentration: 55.5MBq/mL

1.0mL

A technologist needs 4mCi 201Tl thallous chloride at 0800 on June 29. What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on June 29 given the following information: Total act: 10.0 Total vol: 5.5mL Assay: 1200, July 1.

1.35mL

Which radiopharmaceutical is used to label RBC's with 99mTc: A)albumin B)exametazime C)pertechnetate D)pyrophosphate

C)pertechnetate. Three methods of labeling RBC's with 99mTc all use pertechnetate. Pertechnetate enters the RBC and binds to hemoglobin.

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white blood cells with 99mTc: A)bicisate B)exametazime C)pertechnetate D)sestamibi

B)exametazime. Pertechnetate is used to label RBC. Bicisate is used to demonstrate regional brain perfusion. Sestamibi is used for myocardial imaging as well as other applications.

When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation: A)99mTc-pertechnetate B)0.9% sodium chloride C)methylene blue stabilizer D)ACD solution

C)methylene blue stabilizer. When 99mTc-exametazime is used to label white blood cells, methylene blue stabilized is omitted from its preparation.

4mCi of 201Tl-thallous chloride is the prescribed unit dosage. According to the NRC, which of the following measurements verifies that a dosage within acceptable limits has been dispensed into the syringe: A)3.5mCi B)4.0mCi C)4.3mCi D)4.5mCi

All the measurements are within acceptable limits. The NRC states that the administered dosage must fall within the prescribed dosage range or may not differ from the prescribed dosage by more than 20%.

In labeling RBC's with radiochromium, the order of components to be added to the vial containing ACD solution is: A)patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid B)Radiochromium, patient blood, ascorbic acid C)radiochromium, ascorbic acid, patient blood

A)patient blood, radiochromium, ascorbic acid. Radiochromium should not be added to the ACD solution before the patient's blood because ACD may change the valence of the radiochromium before labeling can take place. Ascorbic acid is added at the end.

If a unit dosage of 99mTc-MAA contains 148MBq and 325,000 particles in 0.75mL at 1000, approximately how many particles will be contained in 148MBq at 1600?

650,000 particles.

If a unit dosage of radioactivity contains 4.5mCi in 1.2mL, how many mL must be removed so that 3.5mCi remain in the syringe: A)0.93mL B)0.78mL C)0.42mL D)0.27mL

D)0.27mL

If a radiopharmaceutical kit must be reconstituded with 30mCi contained in 5mL and the eluate has an activity of 350mCi in 7mL, how many mL of preservative-free saline must be added: A)0.1mL B)0.6mL C)4.4mL D)4.9mL

C)4.4mL

What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000 g for 5 min, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500 g?

10 min

According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs: A)no posting is required B)"Caution: Radioactive Materials" C)"Caution: Radiation Area D)"Caution: High Radiation Area

B)"Caution: Radioactive Materials".

Which of the following exposure rates indicate that a package containing radioactive material must be labeled with a category 111 DOT label: A)56mR/hr @ 1m B)22mR/hr @ 1m C)1.5mR/hr @ 1m D)0.5mR/hr @ 1m

A)56mR/hr @ 1m. Category 1 (white)

If a point source produces an exposure rate of 30mR/hr @ 15cm, what is the exposure rate at 40cm from the source: A)0.2mR/hr B)4.2mR/hr C)11.2mR/hr D)22mR/hr

B)4.2mR/hr. Use the inverse square law

If the half-value layer (HVL) for 131I in lead is 0.3cm, what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate of a 131I source from 12mR/hr to less than 2mR/hr: A)0.3cm B)0.6cm C)0.9cm D)1.2cm

C)0.9cm. Each half-value layer (HVL) will decrease the activity to one-half of the previous activity.

A patient receives a unit dosage of 89Sr-chloride intended for another patient. According to the NRC, does this situation describe a medical event requiring notification to the NRC, or a medical event that needs to be reported only the the NM supervisor.

The situation describes a medical event requiring notification of the NRC.

According to the NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is: A)500mSv B)150mSv C)50mSv D)5mSv

B)150mSv. According to the NRC, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is 15rem or 150mSv.

A vial of 133Xe has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is twice the background level. What should the technologist do next?

According to the NRC regulations, decay in storage of radioactive materials requires that the materials remain in storage until the radioactivity is indistinguishable from background radiation using a survey meter on the most sensitive scale.

According to the NRC, wipe test of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed: A)on a reasonable schedule B)every day on which radiopharmaceuticals are used C)weekly D)only if contamination occurs

A)on a reasonable schedule. As of October 2002, the NRC no longer requires daily surveys and weekly wipe tests. Instead, it allows facilities to establish a survey and wipe test schedule.

What is the measured exposure rate of a GM meter if the dial is set to x0.1 and the meter is showing 1.7mR/hr?

0.17mR/hr

When opening packages containing radioactive material, which of the steps should be performed first: A)visually inspect the package for damage B)put on disposable gloves C)verify the package contents to the packing slip D)wipe test the package

B)put on disposable gloves. Because it has not been determined that the package is free of contamination, gloves should be put on before he package or its contents are handled.

During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until: A)no more contamination can be removed B)the exposure rate cannot be distinguished from background C)no one would receive the maximum allowable TEDE if in area

A)no more contamination can be removed. If residual radioactivity is present after thorough decontamination, the area should be covered as a reminder for personnel to limit their time in that area.

Personnel must wear a radiation monitoring device during work hours if they are: A)exposed to radiation at any time during work hours B)exposed to radiation above background levels C)likely to exceed 10% of the annual max allowable occupational exposure

C)likely to exceed 10% of annual max allowable occupational exposure. The NRC requires monitoring of occupationally exposed individuals if they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual allowable limit for external exposure or internal uptake.

A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose, from being exposed to the patient, exceeding how many rems: A)0.1 B)0.2 C)0.5 D)5.0

C)0.5rems

If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to a background exposure rate of 0.05mR/hr: A)4 half-lives B)5 half-lives C)6 half-lives D)7 half-lives

C)6 half-lives. For each half-life that passes, the activity decreased to half of the previous activity.

According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years: A)1 B)3 C)5 D)as long as the facility's license is in effect

B)3 years. According to the NRC, the results of all surveys must be retained for 3 years.

Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides: A)lead B)plastic-lined lead C)tungsten D)steel

C)tungsten. Tungsten is recommended because it will absorb more radiation than the same thickness of lead.

If a NMT needs a diagnostic X-ray, how should this exposure be included in the occupational exposure record: A)the NMT should wear their dosimeter during the X-ray B)RSO will supply a separate dosimeter C)X-ray is not included in the occupational record

C) Only radiation exposure directly related to the practice of nuclear medicine as an occupation is recorded in the individual's dosimetry record. Personal diagnostic and therapeutic exposures are not included.

If the results of a dose calibrator linearity test demonstrate that the measured values exceed the values by 12-15%, the technologist should: A)replace the instrument B)have the instrument repaired C)use a correction factor to determine true activities

C)use a correction factor to determine true activities. The NRC requires dose calibrators be tested for proper function according to nationally recognized standards. The standard of practice dictates that the measured activity should be within 10%.

A NMT measures a 57Co standard in a dose calibrator on these settings: 57Co, 99mTc, 123I, 133Xe, and 201Tl, and then calculates the % difference between the calculated and measured activities. The NMT is assessing: A)accuracy B)constancy C)linearity

B)constancy. Using a long-lived source, a reading is obtained for each of the commonly used preset buttons on the dose calibrator. Although this does not provide an accurate reading, it shows whether the instrument is performing with precision.

A 137Cs reference standard is counted daily with a scintillation spectrometer, using the same gain, window, and high voltage setting. If the net counts per minute changes dramatically from one day to the next, what should the NMT do?

Recalibrate the operating voltage. Voltage may drift slightly from one day to the next, causing the gamma ray spectrum to shift to the right or left, out of the preset window.

According to the standards of practice, how often should dose calibrator linearity testing be performed: A)annually B)quarterly C)monthly D)daily

B)quarterly. Dose calibrator linearity should be performed quarterly.

To repair non-uniformity on an intrinsic uniformity image the service engineer will need to: A)replace the crystal B)replace a photomultiplier tube C)repair the collimator

B)replace a photomultiplier tube. On an intrinsic flood, a collimator is not used. Damage to a crystal would appear irregular.

Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy: A)99mTc B)137Cs C)125I D)131I

B)137Cs. The reference source used for monitoring dose calibrator constancy must be long-lived to permit comparison of measured and predicted activities over an extended period.

Which statement about the effect of the filter-cutoff frequency is TRUE: A)the lower the cutoff frequency, the smoother the image B)the lower the cutoff frequency, the noisier the image

B) The cutoff frequency of a filter determines which frequencies are passed unchanged and which are altered or suppressed. Lowering the cutoff frequency eliminates more of the high-frequency signal that gives the image its sharp detail.

Temporal resolution is related to which of the following acquisition parameters: A)% energy window B)matrix size C)framing rate D)collimator

C)framing rate. Temporal resolution is the ability to demonstrate changes in radiopharmaceutical distribution over time. Therefore, this is a factor in dynamic and multiple-gated acquisitions, both of which acquire data in sequential frames.

Temporal smoothing could be appropriately applied in which of the following studies: A)whole-body bone B)gated-equilibrium cardiac function C)SPECT of liver D)thyroid

B)gated-equilibrium cardiac function study. Temporal smoothing is used in dynamic studies to produce a gradual variation in counts and smoother motion from one frame to the next. It is not useful in static imaging.

If an image is acquired into a 128 x 128 matrix on a scintillation camera with a 350-mm-diameter field of view, what are the dimensions of each pixel?

2.73 x 2.73mm. Pixel size is determined by the matrix dimensions and the size of the field of view. Pixel size(mm) = diameter of FOV(mm)/number of pixels.

Which of the following instruments should be used to determine whether all removable contamination has been eliminated: A)GM counter B)cutie pie C)well counter D)uptake probe

C)well counter. When GM counter readings no longer decrease as the cleanup progresses, a wipe test, which is measured in a well counter, is performed.

Which of the following matrix sizes and acquisition modes would be most appropriate for a blood flow study of the feet: A)64x64 byte B)64x64 word C)256x256 byte D)256x256 word

A)64x64 byte. A blood-flow study of the feet would be acquired at a framing rate of 2-4 sec/frame, so few counts would be obtained in each frame. Therefore, a small matrix must be used:64x64.

A daily uniformity flood for a scintillation camera should contain a minimum of how many counts: A)1-2 million B)3-5 million C)6-10 million D)20-30 million

B)3-5 million. For a small-FOV-camera, 3 million counts should be acquired; for a large-FOV-camera, 5 million counts should be obtained.

As a pinhole collimator is moved farther away from the thyroid, how will it affect the image: A)the gland will appear larger B)the gland will appear smaller C)no change in size

B)the gland will appear smaller. As a pinhole collimator is moved from a source, the image of the source becomes smaller. As it is moved closer, the image becomes larger.

During geometric variation testing of a dose calibrator, activity in a 1mL syringe measures 253uCi when the expected reading is 212uCi. Which of the correction factors should be applied to the reading: A)0.84 B)1.19 C)4.1 D)23.3

A)0.84. When the geometric variation varies from the expected by more than 10%, a correction factor must be calculated and applied. Correction factor = expected activity/actual activity.