Pharmacology Study Guide 2

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240 Terms

1
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Which of the following is given orally to dogs an hour before or two hours after eating?

Cyclosporine

2
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Which of the following is better for cats?

Prednisolone

3
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How do you treat proud flesh in horses?

With copper sulfate pentahydrate

4
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Whenever possible, how should glucocorticoids be applied?

Topically

5
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Which drug would be used to dilate pupils prior to cataract removal?

Phenylephrine

6
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To use this drug the tympanic membrane needs to be intact?

Gentamicin

7
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What is used to treat seborrhea oleosa?

Coal tar

8
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Which antiseptic is typically used as a solvent or vehicle for other drugs?

Propylene glycol

9
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Which of the following reduce inflammation by blocking the action of the enzyme phospholipase?

Prednisone

10
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What would be used to reduce inflammation and pain associated with acute chronic otitis?

Fluocinolone

11
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Which of the following is an immunomodulating drug that is used to decrease inflammation resulting in improved tear production?

Cyclosporine

12
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What is common in dogs, is thought to be immune-mediated, and is diagnosed with a Schirmer tear test?

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

13
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Most ophthalmic drugs for small animals are given using which route of administration?

Topical

14
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How is a lubricant tear supplement used?

As an anesthetic when eyes need to stay open

15
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What is used to control lick dermatitis?

Zinc

16
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How would you treat thrush in horses?

With copper naphthenate

17
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Where are blood and lymph vessels found in the integumentary system?

The dermis

18
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What ending do most glucocorticoid drugs have in the generic name?

-sone

19
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Which of the following products is not approved for use as drugs by the U.S. FDA but is available as a chewable treat for dogs?

Glucosamine/chondrotin sulfate

20
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Which of the following can cause a perforated gastric ulcer in a dog with just one dose?

Naproxen

21
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NSAIDs are _____.

Abtipyretic

22
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To treat acute inflammation of the anterior uvea, use _______.

Atropine

23
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What parts of the ear are responsible for balance and equilibrium?

Vestibule and semicircular canals

24
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How is Addison’s disease prevented?

Glucocorticoids are given at the lowest dosage possible and are withdrawn gradually

25
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Which of the following drugs causes vasodilation while also being an anti-inflammatory?

Dimethyl sulfoxide

26
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Which of the following are clinical signs of Cushing’s disease?

Lethargy

27
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Which of the following is true about artificial tears?

They are pH-buffered solutions

28
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Which of the following antibacterial drugs may cause anaphylaxis in cats when applied topically?

Polymyxin B

29
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Which of the following is an antibacterial drug?

Neomycin

30
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Which of the following is a counterirritant?

Eucalyptus oil

31
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Which of the following is a behavioral condition that can cause a skin disorder?

Excessive grooming

32
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Which of the following is often given to horses with athletic injuries?

Phenylbutazone

33
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How is meloxicam given to cats?

Subcutaneously

34
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What is an astringent used in veterinary medicine?

Stanisol

35
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Which of the following COX-2 drugs has an adverse effect of ulceration?

Robenacoxib

36
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Which of the following is used in surgical scrubs and handwashes?

Chloroxylenol

37
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When an animal is on a glucocorticoid, what does the adrenal cortex do?

Decrease glucocorticoid production

38
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How long do long-acting glucocorticoids work?

More than 48 hours

39
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Where is magnesium sulfate found?

In Epsom salts

40
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Which of the following has both antifungal and antibacterial properties?

Baytril Otic

41
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Which drugs are effective at blocking the action of the enzyme cyclooxygenase?

NSAIDs

42
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What is the only NSAID labeled for use in beef and dairy cattle?

Flunixin meglumine

43
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I am a clear, flexible, and curved capsule. What am I?

The lens

44
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Which of the following statements is true about glucocorticoids?

The anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoid drugs do not cure inflammatory diseases.

45
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Which of the following is the only antihistamine drug approved by the FDA for a veterinary species

Trimeprazine

46
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Which of the following is the most effective immunosuppressant agent available?

Cyclosporine

47
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When would a lacrimogenic be used?

To increase tear production

48
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What is a natural response of living tissue to cellular injury?

Inflammation

49
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Which of the following lowers skin pH resulting in increased hydration and is used to treat seborrhea sicca?

Salicylic acid

50
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What can help with stud tail?

Benzoyl peroxide

51
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What is the mechanism of action of penicillin?

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

52
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Which antiparasitic drug is used topically in cats as Profender?

Emodepside

53
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Chloramphenicol should be used with caution due to its potential to cause:

Aplastic anemia in humans

54
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Which antifungal agent disrupts the fungal cell membrane by binding to ergosterol?

 Amphotericin B

55
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Which antibiotic is effective against Rickettsial organisms?

Tetracycline

56
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Which drug is effective against Giardia and has antiprotozoal activity?

Metronidazole

57
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Aminoglycosides are most known for their potential to cause:

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

58
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Fluoroquinolones, such as enrofloxacin, primarily work by:

Interfering with DNA gyrase

59
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Metronidazole is commonly used for:

Treating anaerobic infections and Giardia

60
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Which is a heartworm adulticide?

Melarsomine

61
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Which ectoparasite treatment is a neonicotinoid?

Imidacloprid

62
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Which of the following is a lincosamide antibiotic?

Clindamycin

63
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Which antiparasitic is also used to treat lung trematodes in dogs and cats?

Praziquantel

64
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Which drug is used to treat equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)?

Pyrimethamine

65
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What type of drug is clorsulon?

Antitrematodal

66
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Imidazothiazoles like levamisole act on parasites by:

Stimulating the parasite's cholinergic nervous system

67
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Sulfonamides act by:

Competing with PABA in folic acid synthesis

68
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What is a common side effect of tetracyclines?

Staining of teeth

69
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What is the primary route for administering milbemycin for heartworm prevention?

Oral

70
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Praziquantel is effective against which group of parasites?

Cestodes

71
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What is the function of xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

Reduce uric acid formation

72
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Which neuromuscular blocker requires an antidote for reversal?

Pancuronium

73
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What is a common side effect of phosphate binders?

Constipation

74
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What is the mechanism of action for neuromuscular blockers?

Compete with acetylcholine at receptor sites

75
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What type of drug is used to reduce pain, redness, swelling, and heat in musculoskeletal disorders?

Anti-inflammatory drugs

76
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What type of drugs are used to decrease intraocular pressure?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

77
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Dantrolene is primarily used to treat:

Malignant hyperthermia

78
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Which of the following is a commonly used beta-blocker in veterinary medicine?

Propranolol

79
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What is the basic functional unit of the kidney?

Nephron

80
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Which urolith type is commonly treated with urinary alkalinizers?

Calcium oxalate

81
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Which class of drugs is used to treat hypertension by blocking angiotensin II?

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

82
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Which of the following drugs is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Spironolactone

83
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What is the primary function of anabolic steroids in veterinary medicine?

Promote growth and muscle mass

84
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What is the primary function of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Lower blood pressure

85
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What is the most common side effect of loop diuretics?

Hypokalemia

86
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Which drug is classified as a neuromuscular blocker?

Succinylcholine

87
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Which drug is used as an adjunctive therapy for inflammatory and traumatic conditions of skeletal muscle?

Methocarbamol

88
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What is the function of alpha-adrenergic antagonists in urinary medicine?

Increase urine retention

89
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What is the main function of phosphate binders?

Reduce phosphorus absorption

90
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Which class of drugs is used to treat urolithiasis?

Urinary acidifiers

91
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Which emetic is most commonly used in dogs for inducing vomiting?

Apomorphine

92
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Which drug is an anticholinergic used as an antisialogue in veterinary medicine?

Atropine

93
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Mirtazapine is classified as a(n):

Serotonin antagonist

94
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Which of the following drugs is a prostaglandin analog used to protect the stomach lining?

Misoprostol

95
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Which antifoaming agent is used to treat frothy bloat in ruminants?

Poloxalene

96
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Metoclopramide has which dual effect in the treatment of vomiting?

Blocks dopamine and speeds gastric emptying

97
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What is the primary purpose of antisialogue drugs during anesthesia?

Decrease saliva production

98
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Which of the following is a protectant/adsorbent antidiarrheal drug?

Bismuth subsalicylate

99
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Which prokinetic drug works as a dopaminergic antagonist?

Domperidone

100
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What is the primary side effect of benzodiazepines when used as appetite stimulants?

Sedation