CRJ 304 Rules of Evidence Final

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137 Terms

1
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"Standing" refers to:

a. the right to ask a court to take legal action

b. being a person whose property has been seized by illegal police action

c. having the right to appeal a judge's decision

d. being the person charged with committing one or more crimes

a. the right to ask a court to take legal action

2
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A "protective sweep" allows an officer to:

a. conduct a roadblock to detect individuals driving under the influence of alcohol

b. sweep a neighborhood for drug users when searching for drug dealers

c. search the immediate area for people who may ambush the officers

d. obtain arrest warrants for all members of a violent street gang

c. search the immediate area for people who may ambush the officers

3
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George was arrested for kidnapping someone for ransom. The kidnap victim, who had severe medical problems and needed regular medication, had not been found. Immediately upon handcuffing George, an officer demanded to know where the victim was. George gave the officer the address. George's statement will be:

a. Admissible under the Inevitable Discovery Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

b. Admissible under the Public Safety Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

c. Admissible under the Impeachment Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

d. Inadmissible because there were no Miranda warnings

b. Admissible under the Public Safety Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

4
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If officers legally obtain a search warrant but fail to follow proper knock-and-announce procedures:

a. everything they seize while properly executing the warrant will be admissible

b. everything seized will be inadmissible in court if anyone was at home at the time

c. everything they seize will be inadmissible in court

d. everything they seize based on the Plain View Doctrine will be inadmissible in court

a. everything they seize while properly executing the warrant will be admissible

5
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Information supporting issuing a search warrant must be:

a. obtained by eye witnesses.

b. Notarized.

c. made under oath or affirmation.

d. all of these are required in order to obtain a search warrant

c. made under oath or affirmation.

6
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A search warrant for a house gives the police authority to search all closets and cabinets in the house.

Select one:

True

False

False

7
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Anonymous information cannot be used to obtain a warrant.

Select one:

True

False

False

8
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If officers illegally seize evidence, that evidence is not admissible at trial even if it was inevitable that it would have been discovered.

Select one:

True

False

False

9
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Items found in plain view while properly executing a search warrant are admissible at trial even though they were not mentioned in the warrant.

Select one:

True

False

True

10
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Only a person whose reasonable expectation of privacy has been violated can petition the court to exclude evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment.

Select one:

True

False

True

11
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The defendant's statements obtained during questioning conducted in violation of Miranda can be used during trial to impeach the defendant if the statement was made voluntarily and the violation was not deliberate.

Select one:

True

False

True

12
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Officer Jones obtained a confession in violation of Miranda. In the confession, the suspect indicated he had hidden the stolen diamonds in the park in a soft drink can. A city park ranger found the diamonds before the police had a chance to recover them. The diamonds will be admissible at trial based on:

a. Impeachment Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

b. Good Faith Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

c. none of these

d. Independent Source Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

d. Independent Source Exception to the Exclusionary Rule

13
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The Exclusionary Rule currently applies:

a. only to federal law enforcement agents

b. Exclusionary Rule is no longer used

c. only in federal court

d. to both local and federal law enforcement agents

d. to both local and federal law enforcement agents

14
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The Fourth Amendment prohibits:

a. all searches of a home without a warrant.

b. all searches and seizures without a warrant.

c. unreasonable searches and seizures.

d. all searches without a warrant.

c. unreasonable searches and seizures.

15
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The Fruit of the Poison Tree Doctrine:

a. makes all evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment inadmissible at trial

b. only applies to evidence obtained in violation of the Fifth Amendment

c. was abolished by the Supreme Court in the Wong Sun case

d. makes evidence derived from evidence found in violations of the Fourth Amendment inadmissible at trial

d. makes evidence derived from evidence found in violations of the Fourth Amendment inadmissible at trial

16
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The police do NOT need a warrant to enter a house:

a. when arresting a person who lives in the house.

b. a warrant is not needed in any of these situations.

c. when investigating a crime that occurred in the house.

d. in emergency situations to render medical aid to people in the house.

d. in emergency situations to render medical aid to people in the house.

17
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What is the purpose of the "return" on a warrant?

a. make sure that all documents are returned to the court file

b. document requests for warrants that were rejected

c. provide a record of when the warrant was served and what evidence was seized

d. document how many attempts were made before successfully executing the warrant

c. provide a record of when the warrant was served and what evidence was seized

18
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When executing a search warrant, officers may:

a. thoroughly search the area described and any people who are present

b. conduct a thorough search of the entire building

c. thoroughly search the area described for evidence of all types of criminal activity

d. search only in locations specifically described in the warrant

d. search only in locations specifically described in the warrant

19
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A police officer has the right to use deadly force:

a. whenever reasonably necessary to apprehend a fleeing felon

b. if there is imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

c. all of these would justify the use of deadly force

d. whenever in the officer's personal opinion deadly force is necessary

b. if there is imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

20
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A police officer may detain someone briefly for questioning:

a. whenever the officer has a hunch that the person may be involved in criminal activity

b. the officer may make random stops in order to prevent crime

c. whenever there are specific articulable facts that would make a reasonable officer believe criminal activity is afoot

d. never

c. whenever there are specific articulable facts that would make a reasonable officer believe criminal activity is afoot

21
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An arrest warrant is mandatory:

a. never

b. in all non-emergency situations

c. for all misdemeanors

d. whenever officers enter the suspect's home to make an arrest

d. whenever officers enter the suspect's home to make an arrest

22
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Assume that an officer has sufficient facts to legally justify a search during a detention based on Terry v. Ohio. What restrictions are placed on the search?

a. search can be as extensive as would be authorized if the person were arrested

b. search limited to pat-down for weapons

c. search limited to pat-down for weapons and contraband (illegal drugs, etc.)

d. search limited to area under the person's immediate control

b. search limited to pat-down for weapons

23
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If a teacher has reasonable suspicion that a student is in violation of school rules because he has bubble gum in his shirt pocket, the teacher:

a. may do a thorough search for weapons

b. may do whatever search the teacher thinks will make student stop disruptive behavior

c. may do a pat-down search for the bubble gum

d. may not search student unless the student is arrested

c. may do a pat-down search for the bubble gum

24
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If an officer legally stops a vehicle based on reasonable suspicion, the officer may:

a. order the driver to get out of the vehicle and automatically search the vehicle

b. order the driver to get out of the vehicle

c. order the driver and passengers to get out of the vehicle

d. order the driver and passengers to get out of the vehicle and automatically search the vehicle

c. order the driver and passengers to get out of the vehicle

25
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The information that an officer relies upon to make a stop based on Terry v. Ohio:

a. must be first-hand observations made by the officer making the stop

b. may not be based on hearsay

c. may be based entirely on an anonymous tip

d. is analyzed based on the totality of the circumstances

d. is analyzed based on the totality of the circumstances

26
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The right to use force is based on a "reasonable person." The reasonable person is:

a. a person who never get emotionally involved

b. the person who is about to use force

c. a person who in the same situation as the person in question

d. a person who was saw a video about the situation

c. a person who in the same situation as the person in question

27
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The Supreme Court held that when a person is booked into a jail facility, that facility:

a. may thoroughly search the person and personal property only if there is probable cause contraband is concealed at time of booking.

b. has an automatic right to conduct a thorough search of person but not any containers that are in his/her possession at the time.

c. may thoroughly search the person and property only if the arrest was made with a warrant.

d. has an automatic right to conduct a thorough search of person and any property in his/her possession at the time.

d. has an automatic right to conduct a thorough search of person and any property in his/her possession at the time.

28
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What are the potential consequences if a police officer uses more force than was necessary to make an arrest?

a. The case can be sent to the prosecutor for criminal charges

b. The victim can file the federal civil case for the violation of constitutional rights.

c. all of these can be done in excessive force cases

d. The case can be sent to the Internal Affairs for the departmental discipline

c. all of these can be done in excessive force cases

29
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When a police officer detains someone for questioning based on reasonable suspicion:

a. the officer must give Miranda warnings prior to questioning

b. the person has the right to refuse to answer questions, but the officer does not have to advise him/her of this

c. the officer must advise a person that he/she does not have to answer questions but does not need to use Miranda warnings

d. the person must answer all questions the officer asks

b. the person has the right to refuse to answer questions, but the officer does not have to advise him/her of this

30
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When an officer arrests a person who is a passenger in a car, the officer may search the vehicle as part of the search incident to the arrest:

a. automatic right to thoroughly search the entire car

b. search of the passenger compartment is allowed if there is a reason to believe it contains evidence of the crime for which the person was arrested or if the arrestee has access to the vehicle at time of search

c. automatic right to thoroughly search the passenger compartment

d. a search warrant is required in order to search the car

b. search of the passenger compartment is allowed if there is a reason to believe it contains evidence of the crime for which the person was arrested or if the arrestee has access to the vehicle at time of search

31
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A "citizen's arrest" can be made by anyone who observed a misdemeanor being committed.

Select one:

True

False

True

32
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A police officer may use reasonable force to detain someone for a field interview.

Select one:

True

False

True

33
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An arrest can be made if there is reasonable suspicion that a person committed a crime.

Select one:

True

False

False

34
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The Supreme Court held that officers may conduct strip searches whenever someone is being booked for a felony.

Select one:

True

False

True

35
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"Statement" as used in the Hearsay Rule means:

a. All of these are considered "statements"

b. written assertions.

c. oral statements.

d. nonverbal conduct.

a. All of these are considered "statements"

36
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A co-conspirator's statement can be used at the trial of the other conspirator:

a. only if the statement was made during the course of the conspiracy

b. only if the statement was made to the police

c. only if the co-conspirator refuses to testify

d. only if both conspirators are on trial at the same time

a. only if the statement was made during the course of the conspiracy

37
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A hearsay declarant is considered unavailable as a witness at trial if:

a. All of these qualify as unavailable witnesses

b. the declarant cannot testify because the statements are privileged.

c. the declarant cannot attend court due to severe mental illness.

d. the declarant no longer recalls the statement.

a. All of these qualify as unavailable witnesses

38
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Admissions of a party to the case are admissible in court:

a. Admissible to impeach a party that testifies but not as evidence of guilt

b. Only if introduced by the opposing party

c. Admissible in civil cases but the Fifth Amendment prohibits their use in criminal trials

d. Admissible by either side as long as the statements are documented

b. Only if introduced by the opposing party

39
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How does a spontaneous statement differ from a contemporaneous declaration?

a. Contemporaneous declarations can be made with law enforcement officers present but spontaneous statements can not

b. Spontaneous statements are admissible at trial but contemporaneous declarations are not

c. Spontaneous statements must be made orally but contemporaneous declarations can be either oral or written

d. Contemporaneous declarations can be made in response to questions but spontaneous statements can not

d. Contemporaneous declarations can be made in response to questions but spontaneous statements can not

40
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Prior consistent statements are admissible:

a. Prior consistent statements are admissible for all of these purposes

b. To corroborate testimony

c. To rehabilitate a witness

d. To impeach a witness

c. To rehabilitate a witness

41
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Statements police obtain from the crime victim are admissible at a criminal trial:

a. Victim's statements admissible only if the victim testifies

b. Only if they qualify as excited utterances.

c. Officer may testify about nontestimonial hearsay statements made by victim.

d. Officer may testify about testimonial hearsay statements made by victim.

c. Officer may testify about nontestimonial hearsay statements made by victim.

42
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The Declaration Against Interest Exception to the Hearsay Rule requires that the statement be:

a. all of these qualify for the Declaration Against Interest Exception to the Hearsay Rule

b. against a pecuniary interest

c. self-incriminating

d. invalidates a civil claim

a. all of these qualify for the Declaration Against Interest Exception to the Hearsay Rule

43
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To be admissible under the Reputation Exception to the Hearsay Rule, the statement:

a. there is no Exception to the Hearsay Rule for reputation

b. must be based on reputation among associates or in the community

c. must contain specific examples of the character trait at issue

d. must be offered to rehabilitate a witness

b. must be based on reputation among associates or in the community

44
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To qualify for the Dying Declaration Exception to the Hearsay Rule, the dying person's statement:

a. all of these must be present for the Dying Declaration Exception to the Hearsay Rule

b. must relate to cause of impending death

c. must be spontaneous

d. must relate to current mental state

b. must relate to cause of impending death

45
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When would a statement made to a police officer qualify under the Spontaneous Statement Exception to the Hearsay Rule?

a. when victim makes statement before officers asks him/her questions

b. all of these qualify for the Spontaneous Statement Exception to the Hearsay Rule

c. after suspect who is in custody waives Miranda rights

d. when suspect is detained in the field and only asked a few questions

a. when victim makes statement before officers asks him/her questions

46
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Which of the following exceptions to the Hearsay Rule apply only if the declarant is unavailable?

a. Admissions

b. All of these are admissible only if the declarant is not available

c. Declaration Against Interest

d. Spontaneous Statements

Feedback

c. Declaration Against Interest

47
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All statements made by a homicide victim who believes he/she is about to die are admissible under the Dying Declaration Exception to the Hearsay Rule.

Select one:

True

False

False

48
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Hearsay is admissible in court only if the declarant is unavailable to testify.

Select one:

True

False

False

49
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Silence when a police officer is accusing a person of committing a crime is not considered an adoptive admission.

Select one:

True

False

True

50
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The declarant is the person who originally made the statement.

Select one:

True

False

True

51
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The hearsay rule applies to oral statements but not written ones.

Select one:

True

False

False

52
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A defendant waives a privilege by:

a. all of these would result in waiving a privilege

b. telling someone what was said during a privileged conversation

c. entering a plea of not guilty

d. terminating the privileged relationship

b. telling someone what was said during a privileged conversation

53
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Historically, which of the following were exceptions to the clergy-penitent privilege?

a. incest and child abuse

b. physical injury to members of the immediate family

c. historically there were no exceptions to this privilege

d. acts that violated the doctrines of the denomination involved

c. historically there were no exceptions to this privilege

54
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In which of the following situations would the defense have a right to know if a police officer's personnel file contains complaints about the officer's on-duty conduct?

a. If the officer will testify at the defendant's trial.

b. All of these are all reasons the defendant would have access to the information.

c. If the defendant was arrested for battery on the officer but claims he/she acted in self-defense.

d. If the officer has been on the department for over 5 years.

c. If the defendant was arrested for battery on the officer but claims he/she acted in self-defense.

55
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Statements made during the initial conference with an attorney are:

a. covered by the attorney-client privilege

b. not covered by the attorney-client privilege

c. covered by the attorney-client privilege only if the client retains the attorney to represent him/her

d. covered by the attorney-client privilege only if the conference was with the Public Defender

a. covered by the attorney-client privilege

56
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The First Amendment freedom of the press has been interpreted by the U.S. Supreme Court as establishing a privilege for reporters:

a. there is no constitutional privilege for the media

b. identity of all sources are privileged

c. only sources requesting confidentiality are privileged

d. only sources who need immunity from criminal prosecution are privileged

a. there is no constitutional privilege for the media

57
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The physician-patient privilege belongs to:

a. all of these hold the physician-patient privilege

b. physician

c. patient

d. whoever pays the bill

c. patient

58
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The privilege for confidential communications between husband and wife cannot be invoked if the husband is charged with:

a. bigamy

b. domestic violence against his wife

c. child abuse against his step-children

d. all of these

d. all of these

59
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The privilege not to testify against a spouse can be invoked:

a. in civil court but not at a criminal trial

b. as long as husband and wife were married at the time of the conversation in question took place

c. in all cases except divorce cases

d. only while the husband and wife are actually married

d. only while the husband and wife are actually married

60
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The statutory privilege that protects reporters from going to jail for refusing to reveal the sources applies to:

a. information used for background for a story that was published

b. names of the individuals who were interviewed

c. all of these are covered

d. notes about information the reporter did not include in the published article

c. all of these are covered

61
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When the defense files a motion demanding to see the personnel file of the arresting officer, the judge will:

a. review the personnel file in camera before announcing a decision

b. send the case to an appellate court

c. order the Grand Jury to investigate the allegations

d. order the Internal Affairs unit of the Police Department to provide the reports

a. review the personnel file in camera before announcing a decision

62
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When the President of the United States invokes Executive Privilege, it is presumed:

a. that the President must reveal the requested information if requested by a federal judge

b. that the President must reveal the requested information if requested by the media

c. that the President must reveal the requested information if requested by Congress

d. that the President has the right to invoke the privilege

d. that the President has the right to invoke the privilege

63
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Any evidence, such as the murder weapon, that the defendant turns over to the defense attorney is privileged.

Select one:

True

False

False

64
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Both the laws regarding privileges and the Hearsay Rule must be satisfied in order to have a confidential communication admitted at trial.

Select one:

True

False

True

65
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The attorney-client privilege only applies to preparation of the case for trial.

Select one:

True

False

False

66
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The clergy-penitent privilege applies to all conversations between a member of the clergy and a person in his/her congregation.

Select one:

True

False

False

67
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A warrantless search of a vehicle based on probable cause:

a. is only permitted if there is an emergency that makes it impossible to obtain a search warrant before the car leaves the jurisdiction.

b. is not allowed without a search warrant.

c. can be done after the car is impounded.

d. must be done at the scene immediately after the vehicle is detained.

c. can be done after the car is impounded.

68
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Based on the Plain View Doctrine, if an officer is legally at the location, what level of certainty does an officer need to legally seize an item?

a. reasonable suspicion

b. clear and convincing

c. suspicion

d. probable cause

d. probable cause

69
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If an officer has probable cause evidence is inside a car, the officer may conduct:

a. a thorough search of passenger compartment

b. car can be impounded but no search can be conducted until a warrant has been obtained

c. a thorough search limited to area where the probable cause indicates the evidence will be found

d. a thorough search of entire car

c. a thorough search limited to area where the probable cause indicates the evidence will be found

70
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In order to establish probable cause for an administrative warrant, there must be:

a. Probable cause for the search

b. Reasonable suspicion for the search

c. Refusal to allow inspectors to enter establishes probable cause

d. Reasonable legislative purpose to authorize the search

d. Reasonable legislative purpose to authorize the search

71
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Once a police officer obtains valid consent to search a room:

a. The duration of the search is determined by the officer

b. The person who gave the consent can withdraw the consent at any time

c. The duration of the search must be established before the search begins

d. The consent is valid until either the search is complete or the person giving the consent is arrested

b. The person who gave the consent can withdraw the consent at any time

72
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If a car is legally impounded, the police may inventory its contents.

Select one:

True

False

True

73
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If police are conducting a warrantless search of a vehicle based on probable cause the driver is dealing drugs, the police can search the purse of a passenger in the car.

Select one:

True

False

True

74
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Items a person throws away while trying to escape from the police may be seized as abandoned property.

Select one:

True

False

True

75
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Police may search a car when it is stopped because there is reasonable suspicion the occupants are engaged in criminal activity:

a. Only if there is probable cause there are weapons in the vehicle

b. There is no right to search car when stop is based on reasonable suspicion

c. If there is reasonable suspicion there are weapons in the vehicle

d. Automatically

c. If there is reasonable suspicion there are weapons in the vehicle

76
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Police may seize trash in opaque bags that have been left at the curb for the garbage collector.

a. No warrant required because there is no subjective expectation of privacy

b. Warrant required only if a governmental agency operates the garbage collection service

c. No warrant required because there is no objective expectation of privacy

d. Warrant required if the seizure is a part of a criminal investigation

c. No warrant required because there is no objective expectation of privacy

77
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Police officers can rely on consent given by:

a. All of these people could give valid consent for a search

b. Anyone with a key to the premises

c. The owner of the building

d. Anyone with apparent authority over the area

d. Anyone with apparent authority over the area

78
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Probable cause is not needed to conduct searches of probationers:

a. probationers have the same rights as other people.

b. if consenting to a search is a condition of their probation.

c. only if the search is by a probation officer.

d. as long as they remain on probation.

b. if consenting to a search is a condition of their probation.

79
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The Supreme Court has approved the use of roadblocks for:

a. checking for outstanding arrest warrants

b. checking for people driving under the influence

c. checking for illegal drugs

d. all of these have been approved

b. checking for people driving under the influence

80
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When officers arrest someone who is in a car, the officers are allowed to search:

a. all of these can legally be searched

b. trunk of car

c. passenger compartment

d. under the hood (engine compartment)

c. passenger compartment

81
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A person who has been acquitted of a crime:

a. cannot claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because he/she now has immunity from prosecution for that crime.

b. cannot claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because the statute of limitations has been tolled on the crime.

c. cannot not claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because double jeopardy prevents him/her from being charged for that crime again.

d. All of these are all correct

c. cannot not claim the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination because double jeopardy prevents him/her from being charged for that crime again.

82
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A person who is subpoenaed to testify in a criminal trial (not a defendant) can invoke the Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination by:

a. refusing to take the witness stand.

b. A person who is not the defendant cannot invoke the Fifth Amendment.

c. invoking the Fifth Amendment in response to specific questions.

d. taking the witness stand but refusing to answer any questions.

c. invoking the Fifth Amendment in response to specific questions.

83
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How is the privilege against self-incrimination invoked prior to arrest?

a. Insist the police meet with your attorney instead of you

b. Refuse to answer questions and tell the officers that you are claiming your Fifth Amendment rights

c. You cannot invoke the privilege against self-incrimination before you are arrested

d. Refuse to go to the police station and do not provide information for the police

b. Refuse to answer questions and tell the officers that you are claiming your Fifth Amendment rights

84
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If a suspect who is being subjected to custodial interrogation requests an attorney, the police must:

a. stop questioning immediately.

b. provide the person with an attorney immediately.

c. ask the person if he/she is sure that requesting an attorney is in his/her best interest.

d. conduct a screening interview to determine if the person is eligible for a Public Defender.

a. stop questioning immediately.

85
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If the defendant takes the witness stand and lies:

a. the Fifth Amendment protects the defendant from prosecution for perjury.

b. the only legal recourse is for the prosecutor to file perjury charges.

c. the judge can add an enhancement to the defendant's sentence due to the fact he/she committed perjury while on the stand.

d. the judge can hold the defendant in contempt of court.

c. the judge can add an enhancement to the defendant's sentence due to the fact he/she committed perjury while on the stand.

86
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The Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination applies to:

a. only to oral statements made in response to questioning by law enforcement officers.

b. only to statements made while testifying in court.

c. any evidence that can be used in court during the prosecution of a crime.

d. all forms of testimonial evidence.

d. all forms of testimonial evidence.

87
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The standard for a waiver of Miranda right is:

a. Waiver made after consulting attorney

b. No coercion used to obtain waiver

c. Warnings were correctly given

d. Knowing, intelligent, and voluntary

d. Knowing, intelligent, and voluntary

88
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When are the police required to give Miranda warnings?

a. At the time of arrest

b. Whenever the suspect is detained for any reason

c. Prior to custodial interrogation

d. Only when a suspect is being questioned at a police station

c. Prior to custodial interrogation

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Defendants who have been arraigned have a right to have counsel present during all subsequent interrogation sessions whether or not they are in custody.

Select one:

True

False

True

90
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Prior to questioning a suspect who is in custody, the police must obtain the suspect's explicit consent to talk to them.

Select one:

True

False

False

91
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Statements obtained from the defendant in violation of Miranda can be used for impeachment as long as the statements were made voluntarily.

Select one:

True

False

True

92
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The Fifth Amendment can be used as grounds to refuse to give a voice exemplar.

Select one:

True

False

False

93
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Miranda warnings are not required:

a. During a field interview based on reasonable suspicion (Terry stop)

b. When an inmate is questioned by an inmate/informant not authorized by the police

c. When a suspect is questioned by an undercover officer

d. All of these are situations in which Miranda warnings are not required

d. All of these are situations in which Miranda warnings are not required

94
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A subpoena is:

a. a document ordering a person to appear at the police station for questioning.

b. a document ordering a person to appear in court and testify.

c. a document ordering the arrest of a person the prosecution believes will flee the jurisdiction to avoid testifying at trial.

d. a document granting a person immunity if he/she testifies at trial.

b. a document ordering a person to appear in court and testify.

95
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If a police officer displays hostility toward the defendant while testifying, the officer may be impeached for:

a. unprofessional conduct.

b. bias, motive or prejudice.

c. prior inconsistent statements.

d. Officers cannot be impeached unless they lie under oath.

b. bias, motive or prejudice.

96
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If an item of evidence is not in the courtroom when a witness is testifying about it:

a. the judge is required to grant a recess so the attorney can bring it to the courtroom.

b. the attorney can be held in contempt of court for failing to bring the evidence at the time it is needed.

c. the witness will not be allowed to testify about the evidence.

d. the judge may rule that the item may not be admitted into evidence.

d. the judge may rule that the item may not be admitted into evidence.

97
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If the police want to talk to the defendant between the arraignment and the trial they:

a. may question the defendant as long as it is not done at the police station.

b. must have the prosecutor present during any contact with the defendant.

c. must call the defense attorney and arrange for a meeting with the defendant.

d. should contact the prosecutor and ask the prosecutor to contact the defense attorney.

d. should contact the prosecutor and ask the prosecutor to contact the defense attorney.

98
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The "chain of custody" for the gun that was the murder weapon includes:

a. where the gun was purchased.

b. where the police found the gun.

c. who owns the gun.

d. All of these are part of the "chain of custody"

b. where the police found the gun.

99
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The normal process for subpoenaing a local witness is:

a. Police prepare subpoena, judge signs it, subpoena is served on the witness

b. Attorney prepares subpoena, judge signs it, subpoena is served on the witness

c. Attorney prepares subpoena, attorney signs it, subpoena is served on the witness

d. Judge prepares subpoena and signs it, subpoena is served on the witness

c. Attorney prepares subpoena, attorney signs it, subpoena is served on the witness

100
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The police should release information about the case to the media:

a. All facts of the case should be provided upon request

b. Facts should be stated accurately without making inflammatory statements

c. All facts of the case should be released except evidence that court has ruled is inadmissible

d. Police should not give information to the media

b. Facts should be stated accurately without making inflammatory statements