American Government CLEP Peterson’s Practice Test 3 (Flashcard mode)

Minority political parties historically have included all of the following EXCEPT

a. farmer-laborer parties that embrace populist, working-class ideals.

b. parties that focus on a single issue.

c. parties of ideological protest, such as the Libertarian or Socialist parties.

d. the Independent party.

e. factions that have split off from one of the two major parties.

The correct answer is D. A candidate who is running on the Independent ticket, by definition, does not identify with any party. Historically, minority parties have been formed when groups have concluded that their interests have not been adequately served by either of the two major parties. Sometimes, the new party splinters from one of the major parties (E). This was the case with the American Green party, which split off from the Democratic party and nominated consumer and environmental advocate Ralph Nader as their presidential candidate in 2000. Often minority parties will focus on a single issue (B), such as the Right To Life party, which opposes abortion. The rise of populist movements that embrace working-class ideals is a recurrent theme in American politics, and has occasionally resulted in the formation of new political parties (A), such as the Progressive parties of 1916 (known as the Bull Moose party) and 1924.

Which of the following committee assignments would confer the most power and influence on members of the Senate?

a. Budget

b. Energy and Natural Resources

c. Environment and Public Works

d. Governmental Affairs

e. Appropriations

The correct answer is E. While Budget A; Energy and Natural Resources B; Environment and Public Works C; and Governmental Affairs (D) are all important committees, none of them ranks as the most powerful or influential. Appropriations (E) is the most powerful committee in the Senate because it decides exactly how and where tax monies will be spent; therefore, it confers the most power and influence on its members.

Which of the following statements about Gideon v. Wainwright is correct?

a. It established a cause of action for unconstitutional acts by federal agents.

b. It declared that the government cannot criminalize anti-American speech.

c. It declared that Congress has no power to enact a statute that limits the jurisdiction of federal courts.

d. It declared that a state's refusal to appoint counsel for a defendant violated the "due process" clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.

e. It declared the Constitution to be the "Supreme Law of the Land."

The correct answer is D. Gideon v. Wainwright was a 1963 case concerning a man, arrested for breaking and entering, whose request for a court-appointed lawyer was denied in accordance with Florida state law, which provided indigent defendants with counsel only in capital cases. Writing for the majority, Justice Hugo L. Black argued that Florida's forcing the defendant to serve as his own lawyer violated the Fourteenth Amendment, which guarantees that a citizen may not be deprived of life, liberty, or property without undergoing "due process of law."

The primary purpose of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 was to

a. establish a commission to study the extent to which architectural barriers prevented access to public buildings.

b. consolidate the nation's disability laws and provide for strong federal enforcement of a strengthened disability rights mandate.

c. establish the National Council on Disability (NCD) as an independent federal agency.

d. request from the General Accounting Office an estimate of the costs of workplace accommodations and of removing architectural, transportation, and communication barriers.

e. replace the term "handicapped" with the term "disabled" in general use.

The correct answer is B. Prior to the passage of the ADA, a patchwork of local, state, and national laws and regulations combined to define and carry forward the mandate of combating discrimination against the disabled and protecting their full citizenship rights under the Constitution. The first federal government commission of type A was authorized by Congress in 1965. After nearly two decades of governmental inquiry into the problems faced by disabled Americans, Congress moved to establish the National Council on Disability as an independent federal agency in 1984 (C). In 1989, the NCD requested from the General Accounting Office an estimate of the costs of accommodating the disabled in the workplace and of avoiding or removing barriers to equal access with regard to public buildings, transportation, and communication networks (D). The ADA strengthened the nation's disability rights mandate by consolidating the nation's scattered disability laws into a single federal code, and provided for federal enforcement to ensure widespread compliance.

After a bill has been introduced in the House of Representatives or the Senate, and referred to a conference committee and a subcommittee, the usual next step is

a. the bill is submitted to the rules committee for consideration.

b. a public hearing is held to explore different points of view on the measure.

c. the text of the bill is published in the Congressional Record.

d. amendments to the bill are proposed and voted on in a markup session.

e. the bill is submitted for the President for approval or veto.

The correct answer is B. After a bill has been introduced in the House or Senate and referred to a conference committee and a subcommittee, it is usual for the subcommittee to hold a public hearing on the measure so that different points of view can be brought to light and discussed. This phase is followed by a "markup session," in which amendments to the bill are put forth and voted on. Following the bill's passage by both the House and the Senate, it is submitted to the President for him to sign, or veto, or let pass into law unsigned.

Which of the following principles, contained in the Fourth Amendment, protects a citizen from unwarranted search and seizure?

a. Due process

b. Habeus corpus

c. Checks and balances

d. Probable cause

e. Exclusionary rule

The correct answer is D. The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution provides aggressive protection against unwarranted search and seizure. Law-enforcement authorities must demonstrate probable cause before a court will issue a search warrant for that location. The principle of due process A protects citizens against imprisonment without proper trial, while a writ of habeus corpus (B) is a judicial mandate to a prison official ordering that an inmate be brought before the court, usually in order to determine whether or not the imprisonment is lawful. The exclusionary rule (E) states that evidence obtained by police in an illegal search and seizure operation can be excluded from a trial.

When partisanship increases in national institutions, which of the following may result?
I. Voting patterns in Congress may shift, affecting the lawmaking process.
II. The President may alter his tactics for setting the agenda for Congress, in response to partisan trends.
III. There may be increased competition between the President and his party to define their public identities.

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II only

d. I and III only

e. I, II, and III

The correct answer is E. When partisanship increases in national institutions, it means that parties themselves, and not simply their leaders, are gaining in power and influence. A partisan trend may cause votes in Congress to split along party lines more predictably than before the trend occurred (I). A partisan shift in voting patterns in Congress may require the President to change his tactics when setting the agenda for Congress (II). When the President's own party gains power and influence, it more puts pressure on the President to conform to the will of the party, leading to increased competition between the President and the party to define their public identities (III).

During the colonial period, royal representatives possessed veto power over acts of the colonial legislatures. Because of wide opposition to this practice, most state constitutions at first gave no veto power to governors. Over time, however, governors gained veto powers, in some cases extending to particular items in appropriations bills. This suggests that state governors have?

a. made significant gains in legislative power with the adoption of the line-item veto.

b. used the veto in the way that was intended by the framers of the Constitution.

c. used the veto to overturn legislation that had been popular with the citizens of their states.

d. expanded their veto power to include the pocket veto.

e. done a more effective job of governing than royal representatives did in colonial times.

The correct answer is A. Historically, the veto has always been a powerful political tool. Expanding the power to include a line-item veto on appropriations bills marks an increase in the power of the governors. In early democratic systems, the veto was problematic; legislative bodies in which each member had veto power over the decisions of the whole were found to be highly susceptible to bribery and corruption. The Constitution balances the presidential veto by giving the Senate the ability to overturn the veto with a two-thirds vote. There is no information given to indicate that answers B through E are either true or false.

All of the following statements regarding the Articles of Confederation of 1781 are true EXCEPT:

a. They created a national government that was largely devoid of power, while retaining most of the power in the states.

b. They were intended to pacify those who feared the power of a remote national government.

c. They set forth the country's name, "The United States of America."

d. They allowed for the extradition of fugitives from one state to another for the purpose of facing criminal trial.

e. They established a bicameral legislature, with each state having two votes.

The correct answer is E. The Articles of Confederation established a unicameral Congress with each state having one vote. The Articles proved insufficient, establishing a precariously weak national government, while concentrating too much power in the states. This was done largely to pacify those who had suffered under British rule and who feared similar abuses by the new national government. In addition to declaring the country's name and the right of the federal government to coin money, levy taxes, and send diplomats to foreign lands, the Articles set guidelines for cooperation among the states in matters of national defense and law enforcement. Article IV allowed for the extradition of fugitives from any state back to the state in which they had been charged or convicted.

All of the following statements about interest groups are correct EXCEPT:

a. They may represent business, labor, agriculture, professionals, ethnic or religious groups, public interest groups, or single-issue groups.

b. They are often criticized for placing special interests above the public interest.

c. They are prohibited from contributing campaign funds or lobbying the legislature in an attempt to influence public policy.

d. They may file court appeals or challenges in order to stimulate action on an issue.

e. They may organize public relations campaigns, confrontations, or demonstrations in an attempt to sway public opinion on an issue.

The correct answer is C. Contributing campaign funds and lobbying the legislature are the two main ways that interest groups, which may represent any of the groups described in A, attempt to achieve their policy objectives. Other methods include filing court appeals and challenges (D), and organizing public relations campaigns, confrontations, or demonstrations. Legislators are routinely criticized for putting the special interests of lobbying groups above the public interest (B).

The gains in combating racial discrimination in the housing market achieved by the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 were undermined somewhat by

a. "Jim Crow" laws, which remained legally in force throughout much of the South.

b. the court-ordered busing of white students into African American neighborhoods to attend school.

c. racist practices in the real estate market such as blockbusting and redlining, which continued illegally in many areas following passage of the Act.

d. the involvement of organized crime syndicates in controlling real estate prices in neighborhoods designated for racial integration.

e. the fact that President John F. Kennedy had been unable to convince the Senate to pass the Act in its original form, prior to his assassination.

The correct answer is C. The Civil Rights Act was proposed by President Kennedy in 1963, and signed into law, in a stronger version, by President Lyndon B. Johnson in 1964. This in no way hindered the efficacy of the Act, the most significant civil-rights legislation since Reconstruction (E). The practice of busing to achieve integration in public schools was based on various state court rulings following passage of the Act, but it did not have the effect described in (B). The practices of blockbusting (by which real estate investors spread fear that an influx of minorities into a neighborhood was going to lower property values, thereby inducing residents to sell their homes at below-market rates) and redlining (by which mortgages, home loans, and insurance were denied to residents of low-income or minority neighborhoods) continued illegally after passage of the 1964 Act and undermined its effectiveness in some areas.

All of the following are included in the Bill of Rights EXCEPT the right to

a. a speedy and public trial.

b. be informed of the right to have a lawyer present during interrogation.

c. be indicted by a grand jury for capital crimes.

d. petition the government for a redress of grievances.

e. bear arms.

The correct answer is B. The right to be informed of the right to have a lawyer present during interrogation , as well as the right to remain silent to avoid self-incrimination following an arrest, both stemmed from Miranda v. Arizona, the historic 1966 case in which Supreme Court Chief Justice Earl Warren, writing for the majority, ruled that interrogating a suspect who has not been made aware of his rights under the Constitution undermined the privilege against self-incrimination guaranteed by the Fifth Amendment. All of the other answers are rights found in the Bill of Rights.

The responsibility of the President to appoint federal judges when vacancies occur on the bench is referred to as

a. judicial review.

b. judicial selection.

c. presidential privilege.

d. judicial activism.

e. preferential treatment.

The correct answer is B. The principle of judicial review (A) arose from the 1803 Supreme Court case Marbury v. Madison, and is the doctrine by which the courts have the ability to strike down laws that are deemed unconstitutional. Presidential privilege (C) is the name given to the President's power to withhold certain information, particularly with regard to advice he has received.

All of the following were important platforms of the nineteenth-century Republican party EXCEPT

a. opposition to the spread of slavery.

b. preservation of the Union.

c. abolition of slavery.

d. post-Civil War reconstruction.

e. government pension for all Civil War veterans.

The correct answer is E. The early Republican party was known for its diversity of interests and personalities. Among the earliest planks in the party platform, in the years leading up to the Civil War, were opposition to the spread of slavery (A) and preservation of the Union (B). Led by President Abraham Lincoln, the party toughened its stance on slavery, ultimately calling for its abolition (C). Following the Civil War, the party advocated the Reconstruction of the South (D), as well as basic civil rights for the former slaves. The Republicans advocated a pension for Union veterans only.

The fact that the Senate alone is entrusted with confirming presidential appointments and ratifying treaties, while the House of Representatives takes precedence in money matters, is an example of

a. checks and balances.

b. laissez-faire politics.

c. senatorial privilege.

d. fiduciary duty.

e. fiscal responsibility.

The correct answer is A. The Senate is entrusted with confirming appointments in order to preclude the President from appointing someone who has not been reviewed by another body. Similarly, a treaty made by the President with another country is not considered in force until it has been ratified, or approved, by the Senate. These powers are given exclusively to the Senate in order to counterbalance the House's taking precedence in money matters.

In 1872, Susan B Anthony was arrested in Rochester, New York for

a. writing herself in as a candidate for mayor, because women were not permitted to run for office.

b. leading a protest against unfair working conditions in a shirt factory.

c. giving a speech that was deemed by local authorities to be un-American.

d. casting a vote, because it was illegal for women to vote.

e. tax evasion.

The correct answer is D. After meeting with Elizabeth Cady Stanton and other female suffragists at Seneca Falls, NY in 1848, Susan B. Anthony was arrested in Rochester, NY in 1872 for voting. Ultimately, she was fined $100, which she refused to pay. Wyoming territory was the first part of the U.S. to give women the right to vote in 1869. After years of political action by women's suffrage groups, the Nineteenth Amendment, giving women the right to vote, passed and was ratified in 1920.

In the last 30 years, voter turnout among American 18- to 24-year-olds has been

a. steadily increasing.

b. steadily declining.

c. up and down, mostly up.

d. up and down, mostly down.

e. basically holding steady.

The correct answer is B. U.S. Census Service statistics show that voter turnout in the 18- to 24-year-old bracket has been steadily declining over the last 30 years. The general voter turnout has also declined, but at a slower rate.

The Ways and Means Committee of the House of Representatives has jurisdiction over which of the following?
I. Raising the revenue required to finance the federal government by levying taxes
II. Supervising the authority of the federal government to borrow money
III. Overseeing Social Security and other social insurance programs
IV. Shielding American companies from unfair competition by levying tariffs on foreign goods

a. I only

b. III only

c. I, III, and IV only

d. I, II, and III only

e. I, II, III, and IV

The correct answer is E. The Ways and Means Committee of the House of Representatives is responsible for raising the revenue necessary for the operation of the federal government (I), supervising the national debt (II), overseeing Social Security and other benefits programs (III), and imposing tariffs and passing legislation to protect and stimulate trade (IV).

Which of the following describe challenges a member of the cabinet typically faces during his or her first year in office?
I. Trying to avoid being manipulated by the bureaucracy he/she has been appointed to oversee.
II. Dealing with entrenched lobbying organizations that may not have the public interest as their primary concern.
III. Vying for the Supreme Court's attention, particularly in a time of war or crisis.

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II only

e. I, II, and III

The correct answer is D. One of the toughest difficulties a cabinet member may face is trying to avoid being manipulated by the very bureaucracy he or she has been appointed to head (I). Interest groups constantly lobby the bureaucracy (II), as well as the legislature in an attempt to influence legislation. However, the cabinet has little direct association with the Supreme Court and would rarely compete for its attention (III).

The fact that few Presidents have been able to command the legislative process for a significant length of time gives evidence that

a. the legislative process is more influenced by the judicial branch than by the executive branch.

b. the President is often busy with his other responsibilities.

c. legislators' voting patterns may change depending on public opinion polls.

d. Congress enjoys taking over and controlling legislation originally suggested by the President.

e. there is an inherent weakness built into the office of the Presidency.

The correct answer is E. All three branches of the government have their inherent strengths and weakness, according to the doctrine of separation of powers, which guards American democracy against despotic rule. In his public speeches and private dealings with Congress, the President will often propose legislation and attempt to set the tone for the legislative session. However, separation of powers ensures that the President can never assume complete control over the decisions of Congress.

In a popular election, a "spoiler" candidate is one who

a. uses his own personal wealth to outspend the other candidates, winning the election as a result.

b. tips the balance between two leading candidates by attracting a minority of voters who otherwise might have voted for one of the leading candidates.

c. participates in the general election, withdrawing from the race before the electoral college election.

d. does not expect to gain office but runs mainly as a form of protest against another candidate.

e. runs mainly for the purpose of trying to expose alleged vote fraud.

The correct answer is B. A spoiler candidate is one who attracts just enough votes in a close election to tip the balance between two leading candidates. The 2000 Green Party candidacy of Ralph Nader is considered a prime example of a spoiler campaign, since it split the Democratic vote between Nader and Albert Gore, clearing the way for Republican George W. Bush to capture the election.

Which of the following Supreme Court cases infamously decided that a slave was not a citizen but property to be "used in subservience to the interests, the convenience, or the will of his owner"?

a. Plessy v. Ferguson

b. Mapp v. Ohio

c. United States v. Klein

d. Strauder v. West Virginia

e. Dred Scott v. Sandford

The correct answer is E. In 1846, Dred Scott and his wife Harriet filed suit for their freedom in St. Louis Circuit Court. In 1857, the case went before the U.S. Supreme Court, which ruled that Scott must remain a slave. This decision contributed to rising tensions between the free and slave states prior to the Civil War.

The process of determining how many representatives a district will elect to the House of Representatives, based on U.S. Census population figures, is referred to as
a. proctoring.

b. redistricting.

c. redistributing.

d. apportionment.

e. gerrymandering.

The correct answer is D. Congressional apportionment is the process by which the number of representatives to be elected by a given district is determined, using population data from the U.S. Census. Redistricting (B) is the process by which the borders of election districts are sometimes redrawn. Gerrymandering (E) refers to redistricting that is done in order to include a coveted group of voters within a certain district, or to avoid splitting a voting bloc.

Political action committees (PACs) and lobbyists generally contribute more money to political parties than to individual candidates' campaign funds, for the main reason that

a. there is a strict legal limit on the amount that can be contributed to an individual candidate, but no such limit on contributions to a political party.

b. contributions to political parties are tax-deductible, whereas contributions to individual politicians are not.

c. political parties always spend more than individual candidates during a campaign.

d. PACs may be Democrat, Republican, or neither.

e. individual candidates are prohibited from accepting campaign funds directly from PACs.

The correct answer is A. The limit that a PAC may contribute to an individual candidate's campaign fund is $5,000. There are no limits on contributions to political parties, as long as the funds are used for "party-building" efforts. While PACs are often either Democrat or Republican (D), party affiliation does not dictate the size of campaign contributions.

All of the following are found in the Declaration of Independence EXCEPT

a. an assertion of the basic right of the people to abolish and replace an unjust government with a just one.

b. an indictment of King George III for repeated usurpations of the colonists' rights.

c. a formal declaration of the independence of the thirteen "united colonies" from Britain.

d. an explanation of problems caused by British troop presence in the colonies.

e. a defense of the Articles of Confederation.

The correct answer is E. The Declaration of Independence declared the thirteen colonies' independence from Britain. However, it did not establish a political system. After stating the right of the people to abolish and replace an unjust government, the Declaration makes a strong case against King George, citing, among other things, the hated practice of quartering British troops in colonists' homes. The Articles of Confederation were drafted in 1777 and finally ratified by the thirteen colonies in 1781.

All of the following statements about the office of the Speaker of the House of Representatives are true EXCEPT:

a. The Speaker is the highest authority in the House of Representatives.

b. The Speaker has the ability to control action on the House floor and to steer the legislative agenda of the majority.

c. The Speaker's office is responsible for determining which bills will be considered on the House floor, and when they will be considered.

d. If a catastrophe were to claim the lives of both the President and the Vice-President, the Speaker would become President.

e. On formal occasions, the Speaker represents the House in a ceremonial role.

The correct answer is C. The duty of producing the schedules and information that tells other representatives which bills are going to be considered, and when, falls to the office of the Majority Whip. With his ability to control action on the House floor and steer the legislative agenda, the Speaker is the highest authority in the House of Representatives. He also represents the House at official ceremonies. The Speaker of the House is third in line for the Presidency, after the President and the Vice-President.

The elected position of President pro tempore of the Senate is almost always held by

a. the Vice President.

b. a senior senator of the majority party.

c. a freshman senator of the majority party.

d. the majority whip.

e. the minority leader.

The correct answer is B. The Constitution provides that, in the absence of the President of the Senate (the Vice President), the President pro tempore will preside. The PPT is almost always the most senior Senator of the majority party. Because the PPT is usually also a committee chairman with a busy schedule, the Senate evolved the tradition of putting freshman senators in the presidential chair, which aids them in learning the procedures of their new workplace.

Studies show that the effect of advance polls on voter behavior was more pronounced in the 1990s than in previous decades. This was probably the result of

a. the use of polling to predict primary as well as general elections.

b. computer advances in polling data collection and tabulation.

c. several highly publicized elections in which polls failed to predict the outcome accurately.

d. the growth of the Internet and rise of cable and satellite television networks as a medium for the dissemination of poll results.

e. the use of the Internet to gather polling data.

The correct answer is D. Studies show the rising impact of advance polls can be ascribed to the increased influence of Internet and cable television news sources. In modern political campaigns, a politician's "approval rating" could almost be likened to his score in an athletic contest—in other words, it has become nearly all-important.

Which of the following statements regarding labor unions is true?

a. Unions may require their members to contribute money to PACs.

b. Unions historically have endorsed more Republican candidates than Democratic ones.

c. Unions may disobey a court injunction to return to work during a strike.

d. Many Americans belong to unions, making endorsement by unions a coveted political prize.

e. Union members who are employed by the federal government may not engage in strikes.

The correct answer is D. Unions are prohibited from demanding political contributions as a condition of membership. Historically, organized labor has sided more often with Democrats than with Republicans. Unions have the right to strike, but they do not have the right to ignore a court injunction ordering them back to work.

The attempted impeachment of President William J. Clinton in 1998 failed because

a. the motion to impeach passed neither the House of Representatives nor the Senate.

b. the motion to impeach passed the House of Representatives but failed to pass the Senate.

c. the motion to impeach passed the Senate but failed to pass the House of Representatives.

d. there was no historical precedent for impeaching a President.

e. the House of Representatives found Clinton guilty of perjuring himself but decided that it was not an impeachable offense.

The correct answer is B. The articles of impeachment against President Clinton passed the House of Representatives, but stalled in the Senate, where a small but influential cadre of Republicans felt that the perjury charges that had been brought against Clinton in the aftermath of the Monica Lewinsky affair did not constitute the type of "high crimes and misdemeanors" that would warrant his removal from office.

All of the following statements about the United States Department of Treasury are true EXCEPT:

a. It oversees the United States Mint and the Bureau of Engraving and Printing.

b. It oversees the Savings Bond Marketing Office, part of the Bureau of Public Debt.

c. It is responsible for allocating funds to the various governmental departments and agencies.

d. It guards against counterfeiting and other types of monetary fraud.

e. It advises and assists in areas of domestic finance, banking, and other related economic matters.

The correct answer is C. The responsibility of allocating funds to the various governmental departments and agencies belongs to the Congress, specifically the Appropriations committees. The office of the Treasurer was founded September 6, 1777, twelve years before the establishment of the Department of the Treasury. It underwent a reorganization in 1981. Since that time, the Treasurer has overseen the U.S. Mint and the Bureau of Printing and Engraving as well as the Savings Bond Marketing Office.

Which of the following best explains the concept of "judicial restraint"?

a. The Supreme Court (and lesser courts) should not interpret the judges' own philosophies or policy preferences into the law but should continue the law whenever reasonably possible to avoid second-guessing the legislative and executive branches.

b. The Supreme Court (and lesser courts) should avoid handing down decisions that are likely to result in either an appeal of the decision, or the overturning of an earlier decision.

c. The Supreme Court shall not hear certain kinds of cases without first conducting its own investigation into the causes of action that led to the case being filed.

d. The judicial system should strive for ideological balance, with equal numbers of conservative and liberal judges on the bench in each state.

e. In criminal trials, federal courts should impose the lightest possible sentence, and grant probation whenever possible, in order to avoid overburdening the federal prison system.

The correct answer is A. Judicial restraint demands that the courts should not read the judges' own philosophies or policy preferences into the Constitution and laws. It holds that because judges have no popular mandate to make legislation, they should defer to the decisions of the elected branches, as long as those policymakers stay within the limits of their powers as provided by the U.S. Constitution and the constitutions of the states.

The following were original positions in President George Washington's cabinet in 1789 EXCEPT

a. Secretary of State.

b. Secretary of War.

c. Secretary of the Treasury.

d. Secretary of Commerce.

e. Attorney General.

The correct answer is D. The Department of Commerce and Labor was established by act of Congress in February, 1903. The other four positions made up the entirety of the first presidential cabinet.

The right of the President to avoid disclosing sensitive information, particularly with regard to advice he has received, is called
a. executive order.

b. presidential pardon.

c. presidential privilege.

d. right of insolubility.

e. presidential indemnification.

The correct answer is C. As an example, President William J. Clinton invoked presidential privilege to avoid disclosing the details of the 177 pardons and commutations he granted to various people in the final days of his administration. Clinton's move was upheld in federal district court, prompting criticism from those who felt the judge's ruling reflected an extreme interpretation of presidential privilege.

Which of the following are responsibilities of the Council of Economic Advisers?
I. To assist and advise the President in the preparation of the Economic Report
II. To gather timely and authoritative information concerning economic developments and trends
III. To advise the President on the extent to which various programs and activities of the federal government are contributing or not contributing to the overall economic policy
IV. To develop national economic policies that promote free enterprise and maintain employment, production, and purchasing power

a. I only

b. IV only

c. I and III

d. II and IV

e. I, II, III, and IV

The correct answer is E. The Employment Act of 1946 established the Council of Economic Advisers. As the President's chief advisers on the economy, the CEA is charged with making studies and providing the President with the best available information on the economy (I, II). The CEA also advises the President on whether or not various government programs have been successful at fulfilling their stated objectives (III), and develops economic policies designed to maintain the economy's strength and minimize the effects of fluctuations (IV).

Which of the following statements about the Securities and Exchange Commission is true?

a. It was created by the Securities Act of 1933, also known as the "truth in securities" law.

b. It replaced the self-regulatory organizations (SROs) that had previously governed the activities of the securities markets.

c. It requires reporting of financial information by companies with publicly traded securities.

d. It oversees the activities of the American gold and silver markets.

e. It was created by the Investment Advisers act of 1940.

The correct answer is C. After the Securities Act of 1933 outlawing fraud and requiring companies to disclose financial and other important information prior to the sale of securities, the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 was passed, establishing the Securities and Exchange Commission. The SEC works in conjunction with the markets' Self-Regulatory Organizations to enforce the nation's securities laws. The SEC requires regular reporting of financial information by companies with publicly traded securities.

The most effective way for an interest group to form a powerful policy coalition of interests is to ally with

a. the Majority Whip and state governors.

b. the Secretary of State and a congressional subcommittee.

c. a federal agency and the Attorney General.

d. a federal agency and a congressional subcommittee.

e. a political action committee and a major television news network.

The correct answer is D. The most effective way for an interest group to form a powerful policy coalition of interests is to ally with a federal agency and a congressional subcommittee. By working hand-in-hand with the bureaucracy and a congressional subcommittee, an interest group greatly improves its chances of influencing new legislation in the Congress.

According to the Constitution, the electors in the Electoral College shall be appointed

a. by the Congress.

b. by random drawing in a lottery.

c. in a manner to be determined by the state legislatures.

d. by voters in an election.

e. by the House of Representatives.

The correct answer is C. The Constitution provides for the establishment of the Electoral College, but it leaves to the state legislatures the question of how its electors are to be appointed. Subsequently, every state passed legislation providing for electors to be directly elected by the voters.

The European political philosophers whose writings influenced the concepts of liberty and government contained in the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution belonged to the intellectual and cultural movement known as

a. the Reformation.

b. the Renaissance.

c. the Enlightenment.

d. Realpolitik.

e. the Great Awakening.

The correct answer is C. The Enlightenment was an eighteenth-century movement with roots as far back as the thirteenth-century revival of Aristotelian logic by St. Thomas Aquinas. The French political philosophers Jean-Jacques Rousseau and (Charles-Louis Secondat, Baron of) Montesquieu, for example, had a major influence on Thomas Jefferson and James Madison in their work on the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution, respectively.

The class of independent voters who do not vote according to party affiliation, but who typically have a broader range of concerns than single-issue voters, are known colloquially as
a. Copperheads.

b. Mugwumps.

c. Indies.

d. goo-goos.

e. free voters.

The correct answer is B. The term "mugwump" began as an eastern Native American word for "chief." It gained political currency during the 1880 presidential campaign, during which many Republicans became disenchanted with candidate James G. Blaine, and switched sides to ally themselves with the Democratic contender, Grover Cleveland. The press called these party-switching voters "little mugwumps." In modern parlance, "mugwumps" refers to the mass of voters who do not identify strongly with either the Republican or the Democratic parties, but who are liable to vote for either in an election. Many political races have been won or lost based on a candidate's ability to sway the opinions of the mugwumps.

Which of the following is a difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate?

a. There are more than four times as many House Representatives as there are Senators.

b. Debates tend to last longer in the Senate than in the House of Representatives.

c. There are many single-party committees in the House of Representatives, but most committees in the Senate are bipartisan.

d. The House of Representatives has the exclusive power to ratify treaties.

e. Seniority is less important in the House of Representatives than in the Senate.

The correct answer is A. There are 100 Senators and 437 House Representatives. The Senate, not the House of Representatives, has the exclusive power to ratify treaties. Seniority is equally as important in the House of Representatives as in the Senate. All committees in both houses are bipartisan.

All of the following statements about the New Deal legislation passed during the Great Depression under the administration of President Franklin D. Roosevelt are true EXCEPT:

a. It resulted in the creation of many new federal agencies and established a permanent "welfare state."

b. It expanded presidential power.

c. It opened the American power structure to new groups and helped bring about the political realignment of the mid-1930s.

d. It took America in an increasingly isolationist foreign policy direction.

e. It established a system of social rights to replace dependence on private charity.

The correct answer is D. The "New Deal" refers to the sweeping, anti-depression legislation passed during President Franklin D. Roosevelt's first two terms in office. To its supporters, the New Deal embodied laudable humanitarian goals, an openness to new ideas, and a willingness to expand federal powers to achieve its ends (B). Its critics saw it as an egregious expansion of the bureaucracy that failed to end the Great Depression, while creating a burdensome "welfare state" in the process. The broad New Deal legislation had many far-reaching consequences. It established Social Security and other social-rights programs, to replace dependence on private charities, and reformed the relationships between labor and management, and government and finance. However, it did not take America in an isolationist foreign policy direction.

In addition to overseeing the activities of one or more federal agencies, a congressional oversight committee may also

a. investigate the activities of individual members of Congress, recommending disciplinary action if necessary.

b. amend the rules with regard to procedure in the Senate or the House of Representatives.

c. oversee the ratification of an international treaty.

d. oversee the ratification of an amendment to the Constitution.

e. serve as the authorizing committee for federal agencies' programs and operations.

The correct answer is E. A congressional oversight committee is charged with overseeing the activities of one or more federal agencies. It is common for the oversight committee also to serve as the authorizing committee for the federal agencies' programs and operations.

Since 1980, there has been proposed legislation to abolish all of the following federal departments or agencies EXCEPT

a. Department of Housing and Urban Development.

b. Department of Energy.

c. Department of Education.

d. Federal Communications Commission.

e. National Endowment for the Arts.

The correct answer is D. President Ronald Reagan promised during his 1980 campaign that if elected, he would seek to abolish the Department of Education. In 1996, the Republican platform included a plank to abolish the Department of Housing and Urban Development. A bill proposing the abolishment of the Department of Energy was introduced in the Senate in 1996, but failed to pass. Bills proposing abolishment of the National Endowment for the Arts were introduced by Senate Republicans in 1997 and 2002 but failed to pass.

According to the Constitution, the outcome of a presidential election shall be decided by the House of Representatives in the case that

a. a single candidate does not get a majority of electoral votes.

b. there is a virtual tie between the two leading candidates in the popular vote.

c. there is a virtual tie between the two leading candidates in the popular vote and a vote in the Senate fails to select a winner.

d. a candidate wins the popular vote but loses the Electoral College vote.

e. a "spoiler" candidate is determined to have taken votes away from one of the other candidates.

The correct answer is A. According the Constitution, if a single candidate does not get a majority of votes in the Electoral College, the outcome of the presidential election shall be decided by the House of Representatives.

A larger percentage of the Hispanic immigrants who have arrived in the United States since 1990 identifies with the Democratic party. Among Asian immigrants who arrived during the same time period, a high percentage identifies with the Republican party. Which of the following statements gives the most reasonable explanation for the difference in party identification between Hispanic and Asian immigrants?

a. The Democratic party actively recruits Hispanic immigrants but does not actively recruit Asian immigrants.

b. While both Asian and Hispanic immigrants experience various types of discrimination, Hispanic immigrants are more likely to experience economic discrimination.

c. Many Hispanic immigrants have lived under Communist rule, while most Asian immigrants come from established democracies.

d. The President makes more diplomatic missions to Asia than to Latin America in an average year.

e. Many Hispanics come from politically conservative countries in Latin America, where religion plays a significant role in political life.

The correct answer is B. Studies show that while Asian and Hispanic immigrants have to face many of the same hurdles with regard to ethnic-based discrimination in the United States, Asians face less economic discrimination compared with Hispanics. The greater economic difficulty faced by Hispanics, in theory, would cause them to gravitate more toward the Democratic party than the Republican party.

Which of the following may happen to a bill after it has been introduced in the House of Representatives or the Senate and referred to a committee?
I. The committee chairman may refer the bill to the subcommittee that has jurisdiction over the bill's subject matter.
II. In rare cases, the bill may be discharged from the committee and placed on the floor calendar.
III. After being referred to a subcommittee, the bill may get passed to the President to be signed into law.
IV. In a case where the subcommittee has made significant changes to a bill, the bill may be assigned a new number.
V. The bill may never get considered and simply die in the committee.

a. I and III

b. III, IV, V

c. I, II, IV, V

d. I, II, III, and V

e. I, II, III, IV, and V

The correct answer is C. After a bill has been introduced and referred to a committee, the committee chairman usually refers the bill to the subcommittee that has jurisdiction over the bill's subject matter (I). In rare case, the bill is discharged from further consideration by the committee and placed on the floor calendar (II). Committees are able to consider only a fraction of the bills that are referred to them; bills that do not receive consideration die in the committee (V). In a case where the subcommittee has made significant changes to the bill, the bill is given a new number and is called a "clean" bill (IV), usually bearing the name of the chairman of the subcommittee as its sponsor. After being referred to a conference subcommittee the bill is usually subject to a hearing and mark-up session—it is never passed immediately to the President (III).

All of the following statements about the Voting Rights Act of 1965 are true EXCEPT:

a. It directed the Attorney General to challenge the constitutionality of poll taxes.

b. It suspended the use of literacy tests used to discriminate against poor and minority voters.

c. It expressly prohibited the practice of gerrymandering.

d. It required states in the covered jurisdiction to attain "preclearance" from the Attorney General before making changes to voting standards, practice, or procedure.

e. It was amended in 1985 to prohibit vote dilution without requiring the proof of discriminatory purpose demanded by the original Act.

The correct answer is C. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 was designed to combat the systematic abridgement or denial of voting rights of minority voters, which had been ongoing for decades, especially in the South. While it prohibited discrimination against voters on the basis of race or color (a practice which led to vote dilution in these communities), it did not expressly outlaw gerrymandering. However, many lawsuits were raised in the aftermath of the Voting Rights Act, which called the controversial practice into further question and led to court-ordered redistricting in some areas. The preclearance provision D was renewed for 25 years in 1985, at the same time as the standard for proof of discriminatory purpose was eliminated.

Which of the following is a mandatory qualification of United States Senators?
a. Must have donated money to the states from which they are elected

b. Must have attended school in the states from which they are elected

c. Must have been born in the states from which they are elected

d. Must have parents who live in the states from which they are elected

e. Must be residents of the states from which they are elected

The correct answer is E. United States Senators must be residents of the states from which they are elected. Other qualifications are that they must be at least 30 years of age and citizens of the United States for at least nine years.

The Reconstruction Finance Corporation (RFC), founded in 1932 by President Herbert Hoover to help combat the Great Depression, was the predecessor of which one of the following federal agencies?

a. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

b. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC)

c. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD)

d. Freddie Mac

e. Small Business Administration (SBA)

The correct answer is E. The Reconstruction Finance Corporation (RFC) was the base of operations of a federal lending program for all businesses, large and small, that had been hurt by the Great Depression. In 1942, to help engage America's small businesses in the war effort, the Smaller War Plants Corporation (SWPC) was formed. There was a movement to abolish the RFC in the early 1950s. Prior to the creation of the SBA by President Dwight D. Eisenhower in 1953, the Office of Small Business (OSB) of the Department of Commerce provided government support for small businesses. The SBA today offers low interest loans and other programs designed to help small businesses increase their competitiveness.

The Senate can introduce legislation related to any subject EXCEPT

a. changing education policy.

b. raising revenue.

c. appropriating funds to agriculture.

d. changing veterans' benefits.

e. refocusing child labor laws.

The correct answer is B. Only the House of Representatives can introduce legislation related to raising revenue.

The basic principles of a free society include all of the following EXCEPT

a. free market economy.

b. personal and family responsibility.

c. limited government.

d. national income tax.

e. rule of law.

The correct answer is D. Individual freedom and national parliamentary government are also basic principles of a free society. National income tax is not a basic principle or requirement for a free society. Income tax was introduced in 1799 in Britain, originally as a temporary measure to help fund the war against Napoleon. In 1861, income tax was introduced in the United States, as a temporary measure to help fund the Civil War.

In 1998, the Supreme Court struck down the presidential line-item veto law, declaring it unconstitutional, because

a. it violated the congressional representatives' right to free speech.

b. Congress did not have the constitutional authority to hand that power to the President.

c. a President cannot have influence in the legislative process.

d. the Bill of Rights demands that laws be passed in their entirety.

e. the role of lobbyists would be reduced in Washington.

The correct answer is B. The passage of the Line Item Veto Act of 1996 strongly increased the power and authority of the executive branch over federal spending decisions. William J. Clinton was the first President to receive line-item veto power over the federal budget, beginning in January, 1997. In 1998, the Supreme Court overturned the law, ruling that Congress did not have the authority to hand that power to the President. A constitutional amendment would be required to put the line-item veto into effect.

A debate on which one of the following issues would be most likely to involve a discussion of the Establishment clause of the Constitution?

a. Prayer in public schools

b. Abortion

. Gun registration

d. Drug enforcement policy

e. Rural poverty and its causes

The correct answer is A. The Establishment clause of the First Amendment to the Constitution states that "Congress shall make no law respecting establishment of religion" and adds "or prohibiting the free exercise thereof." The latter clause is known as the Free Exercise clause. Some tension exists between the two clauses due to their potentially conflicting mandates, with some scholars arguing that the original goal of the framers regarding this point has never been known.

Which two British Acts, passed in 1764, caused American colonists for the first time to organize protests against the injustices of British rule, and sparked the rallying cry "no taxation without representation"?

a. The Tea Act and the Stamp Act

b. The Sugar Act and the Currency Act

c. The Quartering Act and the Stamp Act

d. The Declaratory Act and the Townshend Acts

e. The Stamp Act and the Currency Act

The correct answer is B. The Sugar Act was the first British Act specifically aimed at raising money from the American colonies for the Crown. The Act increased duties on non-British goods shipped to the colonies. The Currency Act prohibited the colonies from issuing their own currency, angering many colonists. Participants in a town meeting in Massachusetts coined the phrase "no taxation without representation," and by the end of the year had organized a significant boycott of imported British goods in protest.

The Department of Labor, founded in 1888, was established initially as a bureau of which federal department?

a. Agriculture

b. Commerce

c. War

d. Interior

e. State

The correct answer is D. The Bureau of Labor was established in 1884 as a division of the Department of the Interior. The Department of the Interior started as the Home Department in 1849. In 1872, Yellowstone, the first national park, was established. In 1873, Congress transferred territorial oversight to the Department of the Interior from the Department of State. The DOI created the U.S. Geological Survey in 1879.

Members of Congress are expected to

a. become experts in all areas of policy so that they can be informed whenever an important vote arises.

b. defer important votes to their constituents so that the people's voice can be heard.

c. be absent from Congressional sessions if previously scheduled events conflict.

d. consult with the President if they are unsure about how to vote on a particular bill.

e. specialize in a few policy areas rather than claim expertise in the whole range of legislative concerns.

The correct answer is E. Congress is composed of committees, and the committee members are expected to specialize in the subject of that committee. Representatives who are not members of a particular committee read the committee reports and listen to presentations so that they can understand the various issues at hand.

Which Supreme Court case established the principle of judicial review and the power of the Court to determine the constitutionality of legislative and executive acts?

a. Gibbons v. Ogden

b. Marbury v. Madison

c. Dred Scott v. Sandford

d. Brown v. Board of Education

e. New York Times Co. v. Sullivan

The correct answer is B. Often called the most important decision in the history of the Supreme Court, Marbury v. Madison established the principle of judicial review and the power of the Supreme Court to determine the constitutionality of legislative and executive acts. The case arose from a political dispute in the aftermath of the Presidential election of 1800.

A representative who obtains a government project or appropriation for his district, yielding specific benefits to himself and the district (such as patronage positions, increased employment, or public spending), is said to be practicing

a. carpet bagging.

b. soft money tactics.

c. pork-barrel politics.

d. logrolling.

e. Reaganomics.

The correct answer is C. A "pork barrel" spending measure is one that brings a government project or appropriation to a political district, yielding benefits to the district and its political representative. The Reconstruction-era term "carpet bagging" in its modern usage refers to the seeking of political or economic gain in a region by nonresidents of the region. Logrolling refers to the process by which legislators trade votes in order to secure favorable action on projects of interest to them. Reaganomics is the name given to a loose set of conservative economic theories championed by President Ronald Reagan during his term in office, and which remain popular in Republican ideology.

The duties of the Federal Reserve Bank, established by Act of Congress in 1913, include all of the following EXCEPT

a. conducting the nation's monetary policy.

b. supervising and regulating banking institutions, and protecting the credit rights of consumers.

c. enforcing tax judgments made by the Internal Revenue Service.

d. maintaining the stability of the financial system.

e. providing various financial services to the U.S. government, the public, financial institutions, and foreign official institutions.

The correct answer is C. The Federal Reserve Bank was founded in 1913 to provide the nation with a safer, more flexible, and more stable monetary and financial system. As America's central bank, the Fed fulfills many important duties. In conducting the nation's monetary policy, the Fed buys securities, which expands bank reserves, enabling banks to offer more loans and stimulate economic activity. When the Fed sells, it contracts bank reserves, reducing lending and slowing the economy. The Fed can also affect the economy by changing the interest rate at which domestic or foreign banks borrow money from the Federal Reserve System E—or by changing statutory rules regarding bank holdings. These actions are taken in the interests of maintaining the stability of the financial system and promoting a healthy economy. The Fed also oversees and regulates the nation's banking system, and it guards the credit rights of consumers.

Which of the following statements about the Atomic Energy Act of 1946 is true?

a. It transferred the control of atomic energy programs from military to civilian hands.

b. It was signed into law by President Dwight D. Eisenhower in a ceremony on the aircraft carrier Kitty Hawk.

c. It provided funds for the establishment of an Operations Office in Princeton, New Jersey.

d. It provided the funding for the Manhattan Project, which resulted in the creation of the world's first atomic bomb.

e. It established guidelines for the commercial sale of nuclear energy from nuclear power plants.

The correct answer is A. Following the 1945 atomic bombing of Japan that brought an end to World War II, the Atomic Energy Act was signed into law by President Harry S. Truman on August 1, 1946. In addition to transferring control of atomic energy programs from military to civilian hands, it provided funds for the establishment of Operations Offices, the first of which was opened in Chicago, Illinois in 1947. The Atomic Energy Act gave the Atomic Energy Commission extraordinary power to carry out its mission: to guide the use of atomic energy by the United States, not only for military purposes, but also (as stated in the Act) for the promotion of world peace, improvement of the public welfare, and furtherance of competition of free enterprise.

Philosopher John Locke, in his 1690 work Civil Government (second treatise), advised separation of government power between

a. the legislative and executive branches.

b. the judicial and executive branches.

c. the judicial and legislative branches.

d. the executive branch and tax collectors.

e. the executive, legislative, and judicial branches.

The correct answer is A. Locke expanded on the concepts of Aristotle, who favored a mixed government composed of monarchy, aristocracy, and democracy. In his 1656 work Oceana, James Harrington brought these ideas up-to-date, proposing a modern system based on the separation of power.

Impeachment is a
a. loss of office by a government official due to criminal activities.

b. conviction of misconduct brought against a government official.

c. jail sentence given to a government official.

d. criminal offense performed by a government official.

e. charge of misconduct brought against a government official.

The correct answer is E. Impeachment refers only to a charge of misconduct. It does not, as is commonly thought, refer to conviction on such charges. As set forth in the Constitution, the House of Representatives must bring charges of misconduct by voting a bill of impeachment. The accused official is then tried in the Senate, with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court presiding at the trial.

The Constitution requires that state governments, like the federal government, must be

a. legal in form, with the final authority resting with the state legislators.

b. federal in form, with final authority resting with the elected officials.

c. republican in form, with the final authority resting with the governor.

d. democratic in form, with final authority resting with the people.

e. unified in form, with the final authority resting with the state constitution.

The correct answer is D. Within the limits of the Constitution, each state must recognize and respect the laws of the others. State governments, like the federal government, must be democratic in form, with final authority resting with the people.

Which of the following is a component of the executive branch of government?

a. Congressional Budget Office

b. Department of Energy

c. Library of Congress

d. Federal Judicial Center

e. U.S. Tax Court

The correct answer is B. The Department of Energy is one of the various departments associated with the executive branch of government. A and C belong to the legislative branch. D and E belong to the judicial branch.

A decision of the Supreme Court

a. can never be overturned.

b. can be overturned by the President.

c. must be a unanimous decision by all the justices.

d. must be approved by Congress.

e. cannot be appealed to any other court.

The correct answer is E. A decision by the Supreme Court cannot be appealed to any other court. It can, however, be overturned by the Supreme Court if a case is returned to the Court on appeal, ruling out A, B and D are false because they mix the branches of government, which the Constitution explicitly separates. C is also wrong; Supreme Court decisions are based on the majority opinion and are rarely unanimous.

The second highest level of the federal judiciary is made up of the

a. Supreme Court.

b. district courts.

c. courts of appeals.

d. district bankruptcy courts.

e. city courts.

The correct answer is C. Under the Supreme Court, the second highest level of the federal judiciary is made up of the courts of appeals. The courts of appeals review decisions of the district courts (trial courts with federal jurisdiction) within their areas. They also are empowered to review orders of the independent regulatory agencies in cases where the internal review mechanisms of the agencies have been exhausted and there still exists substantial disagreement over legal points.

Which Supreme Court case revolutionized libel law in the United States by deciding that public officials could not sue successfully for libel simply by proving that published information is false?
a. Gideon v. Wainwright

b. Miranda v. Arizona

c. National Labor Relations Board v. Jones & Laughlin Steel Corp.

d. New York Times Co. v. Sullivan

e. Dickerson v. United States

The correct answer is D. The First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees freedom of the press, but for years the Supreme Court refused to use the First Amendment to protect the media from libel lawsuits—lawsuits based on the publication of false information that damages a person's reputation. The Supreme Court's ruling in New York Times Co. v. Sullivan revolutionized libel law in the United States by deciding that public officials could not sue successfully for libel simply by proving that published information is false. The Court ruled that the complainant also must prove that reporters or editors acted with "actual malice" and published information "with reckless disregard of whether it was false or not."

In addition to holding the right of succession, the Vice President is the presiding officer of the

a. Senate.

b. House of Representatives.

c. Department of State.

d. United Nations.

e. National Security Council.

The correct answer is A. The Vice President serves concurrently with the President. In addition to holding the right of succession, the Vice President is the presiding officer of the Senate. The 25th Amendment, adopted in 1967, amplifies the process of Presidential succession. It describes the specific conditions under which the Vice President is empowered to take over the office of President if the President should become incapacitated.

Voter turnout usually increases given which of the following circumstances?

a. There is a binding referendum on the ballot.

b. There is an advisory referendum on the ballot.

c. The incumbent candidate is widely predicted to win in a landslide.

d. One of the candidates withdraws from the race on the eve of the election.

e. There is an outspokenly religious candidate on the ballot.

The correct answer is A. Studies have shown that having a binding referendum on the ballot usually increases voter turnout. An advisory referendum on the ballot does not have this same effect. Both the incumbent being widely predicted to win in a landslide and a candidate withdrawing on the eve of the election are factors that could cause voter turnout to decrease. The presence of an outspokenly religious candidate on the ballot has not been shown to have a correlative effect on voter turnout.

The mission of the Department of the Interior is to
a. ensure that the military is well prepared for any challenge it faces.

b. protect the nation's children from abuse and unfair labor laws.

c. uphold the moral and religious authority that guides the nation.

d. maintain relations and distribute information between the states.

e. protect and provide access to the nation's natural and cultural heritage.

The correct answer is E. The Department of the Interior protects America's treasures for future generations, provides access to our nation's natural and cultural heritage, offers recreation opportunities, honors responsibilities to American Indians and Alaska Natives, conducts scientific research, provides wise stewardship of energy and mineral resources, fosters sound use of land and water resources, and conserves and protects fish and wildlife.

Congressional oversight has led to each of the following EXCEPT

a. forcing officials out of office.

b. changing policies.

c. providing statutory controls over the executive.

d. overturning unjust laws.

e. preventing fraud.

The correct answer is D. The broad jurisdiction of congressional oversight applies to all of the answer choices except (D). Overturning unjust laws is the responsibility of the judicial branch, and specifically the Supreme Court.

The Constitution provides for a national census every
a. 1 year and a redistribution of House of Representatives seats according to state legislators.

b. 2 years and a redistribution of House of Representatives seats according to school districts.

c. 10 years and a redistribution of House of Representatives seats according to population shifts.

d. 50 years and a redistribution of House of Representatives seats according to minority populations.

e. 100 years and a redistribution of House of Representatives seats according to socioeconomic status.

The correct answer is C. The Constitution provides for a national census every 10 years, and a redistribution of House seats according to population shifts. Under the original Constitutional provision, the number of representatives was to be no more than one for every 30,000 citizens. There were 65 members in the first House, and the number was increased to 106 after the first census. Had the 1-to-30,000 formula been adhered to permanently, population growth in the United States would have brought the total number of representatives to about 7,000. Instead, the formula has been adjusted over the years, and today the ratio of representatives to people is about 1-to-600,000.

The current number of representatives in the Senate is

a. 2.

b. 25.

c. 50.

d. 100.

e. 435.

The correct answer is D. The Senate has two representatives from each of the 50 states.

In the Federalist Papers, James Madison proposed that the states under the new Constitution would retain

a. absolute sovereignty.

b. residual sovereignty.

c. supreme sovereignty.

d. no sovereignty.

e. virtual sovereignty.

The correct answer is B. Madison proposed that, instead of the absolute sovereignty of each state under the Articles of Confederation, the states would retain a "residual sovereignty" in all those areas that did not require national concern. The very process of ratification of the Constitution, he argued, symbolized the concept of federalism rather than nationalism. He said: "This assent and ratification is to be given by the people, not as individuals composing one entire nation, but as composing the distinct and individual states to which they respectively belong. The act, therefore, establishing the Constitution, will not be a national but a federal act."

Both the Senate and the House of Representatives have a standing committee on

a. Indian Affairs.

b. Women's Issues.

c. Space Exploration.

d. Religious Oversight.

e. Armed Services.

The correct answer is E. Both houses have a committee for armed forces. A belongs to the Senate. No committees exist for B, C, or D.

An example of an implied constitutional right is the right to

a. privacy.

b. free speech.

c. free assembly.

d. keep and bare arms.

e. right to vote.

The correct answer is A. The right to privacy is an implied right since it is not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the 9th Amendment states that "the enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people." In other words, citizens can enjoy certain implied rights not mentioned in the Constitution as long as they are in keeping with the spirit of the Constitution.

The drafters of the Constitution realized that certain functions, such as sanitation, education, and local transportation, could be best served by

a. the federal government.

b. the Senate.

c. local jurisdictions.

d. individuals.

e. foreign countries.

The correct answer is C. The drafters of the Constitution made the national structure supreme, but they wisely recognized the need for a series of governments more directly in contact with the people and more keenly attuned to their needs. Thus, certain functions—such as defense, currency regulation, and foreign relations—could only be managed by a strong centralized government. But others—such as sanitation, education, and local transportation—could be better served by local jurisdictions.

One reason why the United States has only two major political parties is that

a. the federal government does not allow third-party representatives to attend Congress.

b. third parties are not bound by the same campaign laws as are Democrats and Republicans.

c. the Constitution limits the number of political parties that the nation can have at any one time.

d. almost everyone in the United States has the same beliefs and moral systems.
e. one or both of the major parties often adopt a third party's most popular issues, thereby taking its voters.

The correct answer is E. Third parties have a hard time surviving because one or both of the major parties often adopt their most popular issues, and thus their voters. The most successful third party in recent years has been Ross Perot's Reform Party, which had some success in the Presidential elections of 1992 and 1996. Jesse Ventura became the first Reform Party candidate to win statewide office when he was elected governor of Minnesota in 1998.

Currently, the most important form of media for candidates who want to become elected officials is

a. the Internet.

b. television.

c. radio.

d. newspapers.

e. magazines.

The correct answer is B. Television media coverage often dictates how a candidate is perceived, and television coverage often "makes or breaks" a candidate. The first television broadcast of a political convention came in 1940, with an audience of 100,000 viewers. By the 1950s, television was reaching one-third of America's households. The two parties spent $3.5 million on television ads during the 1952 campaign, with the Republicans continuing to outspend the Democrats by a large margin. The 1960 Kennedy-Nixon debates clinched the crucial role of television in modern campaigning.

In American politics, the term "caucus" refers to

a. a preliminary vote usually taken early in the electoral process within a party to express a preference for one of the party's candidates.

b. the group of electors who meet on election day and formally select the next President of the United States.

c. a formal statement of position on major political issues drafted by a candidate or a political party.

d. a political party outside the two-party system that is perceived to have a significant base of support.

e. the main mechanism used by modern political parties to nominate their candidate for President.

The correct answer is E. A caucus is the main mechanism used by modern political parties to nominate their candidate for President. In the Presidential nomination process, it now denotes a meeting of local party activists at the precinct level who select, in an open forum, delegates to county meetings. These delegates in turn select delegates to state meetings, and these state-level conventions select delegates to the party's national convention.

Which of the following is true of a Presidential primary?

a. The result determines who is President.

b. There can be two winners.

c. Only registered party members can vote.

d. It is held in only key states.

e. It is overseen by the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is C. The Presidential primary is the system of selecting a party's candidate for office in an intraparty election in which only registered members of that party may vote.

The term "Reagan Democrats" has become a generic term for

a. people who do not vote.

b. third-party candidates.

c. independent voters.

d. swing voters in the Democratic party.

e. swing voters in the Republican party

The correct answer is D. "Reagan Democrats" is the term used for those Democratic voters who voted for the Republican President, Ronald Reagan, in the 1980s. "Reagan Democrats" is often used today as a generic term for swing voters in the Democratic party.

A budget resolution is a

a. joint resolution between the United States and foreign allies to impose boycotts on rogue nations.

b. resolution put forth by the President that must be approved by state legislatures before it goes into effect.

c. resolution adopted by the House of Representatives, but not the Senate, that must be approved by the Cabinet before it is passed into law.

d. resolution adopted by the Senate, but not the House or Representatives, that must be approved by the President before it is passed into law.

e. concurrent resolution, adopted by both Houses of Congress, that sets forth a Congressional budget plan for the budget year and at least four out-years.

The correct answer is E. A budget resolution is a concurrent resolution, adopted by both Houses of Congress, that sets forth a Congressional budget plan for the budget year and at least four out-years. The plan consists of spending and revenue targets with which subsequent appropriation acts and authorization acts that affect revenues and direct spending are expected to comply. The targets established in the budget resolution are enforced in each House of Congress through procedural mechanisms set out in law and the rules of each House.

One key result of the War Powers Act of 1973 was that it

a. provided the executive branch full authority to declare and wage war.

b. placed limitations on the initiation of military interventions by the executive branch.

c. brought the Supreme Court into the process of deciding whether or not to go to war.

d. allowed for a general vote by the people of the United States on the decision to commit troops.

e. weakened the role of Congress in military decisions by placing more authority with the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

The correct answer is B. The revival of congressional activity during the Vietnam War led to the War Powers Act of 1973, which placed limitations on the initiation of military interventions by the executive branch. Congress specified that such actions could not continue for more than 60 days without precipitating congressional review. If Congress did not approve the executive action, the President would have to withdraw troops. This legislation forced the executive branch to obtain congressional approval of significant military operations.

Which of the following are roles of the Central Intelligence Agency?
I. Aid local police forces to combat white-collar crime
II. Coordinating the nation's intelligence activities
III. Evaluating and disseminating intelligence that affects national security

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. II and III only

e. I, II, and III

The correct answer is D. The Central Intelligence Agency was created in 1947 with the signing of the National Security Act by President Truman. The National Security Act charged the Director of Central Intelligence (DCI) with coordinating the nation's intelligence activities and correlating, evaluating and disseminating intelligence which affects national security. Statement I is a role of the FBI.

Which of the following would most likely board a foreign ship suspected of drug trafficking at a U.S. port?

a. Navy

b. Marines

c. Coast Guard

d. Army Amphibious Unit

e. Immigration and Naturalization Service

The correct answer is C. The Coast Guard is the lead federal agency for maritime drug interdiction and shares lead responsibility for air interdiction with the U.S. Customs Service. As such, it is a key player in combating the flow of illegal drugs to the United States. The Coast Guard's mission is to reduce the supply of drugs from the source by denying smugglers the use of air and maritime routes in the Transit Zone, a six million square mile area, including the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico and Eastern Pacific.

An example of an independent grant-making agency of the federal government is

a. NASA.

b. the Arctic Research Commission.

c. the Committee on Indian Affairs.

d. the Department of Education.

e. the National Endowment for the Humanities.

The correct answer is E. NEH is an independent grant-making agency of the United States government dedicated to supporting research, education, preservation, and public programs in the humanities. The agency was established in 1963.

Which of the following is the "lame duck" amendment to the Constitution?

a. 20th Amendment (limiting service of elected officials)

b. 5th Amendment (cannot be tried twice for the same offense)

c. 18th Amendment (prohibition)

d. 3rd Amendment (soldiers quartered in one's home)

e. 7th Amendment (right to jury trial)

The correct answer is A. The "lame duck" amendment is the popular name for the 20th Amendment to the Constitution, ratified on February 6, 1933. It is designed to limit the time that elected officials can serve after the general election in November. This amendment provides, among other things, that the terms of the President and Vice President end at noon on January 20, the terms of Senators and Representatives end at noon on January 3, and the terms of their successors then begin.

Does the President have any control over the sessions of Congress?

a. No, under no circumstances can the President call a session of Congress.

b. No, but the Vice President can call a session of Congress if necessary.

c. Yes, but the President can only call a session of the Senate and not the House of Representatives.

d. Yes, the President can call a session of Congress "on extraordinary occasions."

e. Yes, the President can call a session of Congress whenever he wants.

The correct answer is D. Under the Constitution, the President may convene Congress, or either House, "on extraordinary occasions." It is usual for the President in calling an extra session to indicate the exact matter that needs the attention of Congress. However, once convened, a Congress cannot be limited in the subject matter that it will consider.

The annual federal budget process is initiated by the

a. President.

b. House of Representatives.

c. Senate.

d. Appropriations Committee.

e. Ways and Means Committee.

The correct answer is A. Although the Constitution does not require the President to present an annual budget, in 1921 the Budget and Accounting Act became law and lay the foundation for the modern budget process, which includes the President's budget. More recently, the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 established a timetable for the annual budget process, which is kicked off each year by the Presidential budget submission. The Budget Act specifies that the President's budget should be presented to the Congress on or before the first Monday in February. This generally coincides with the timing of the President's annual State of the Union Address before the Congress.