Immuno 1: Disease and Lab Diagnosis

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Last updated 4:33 PM on 7/12/26
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85 Terms

1
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inherited immunodeficiency may be referred to:

primary

2
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acquired immunodeficiency may be referred to:

secondary

3
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AIDS, malignancies, and immunosuppressive drugs are examples of ____ immunodeficiency.

secondary

4
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_____ indicates that a part of the immune system is missing or dysfunctional.

immunodeficiency 

5
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____ immune deficiency diseases results from genetic defects such as:

  • lymphoid cells

  • phagocytic cells

  • regulatory molecules

  • complement proteins

primary

6
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primary or secondary immunodeficiency: genetic, child born with defect?

primary

7
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primary or secondary immunodeficiency: at least 58% cases diagnosed in children <15 years old?

primary

8
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primary or secondary immunodeficiency: vast majority are 83% males X-linked recessive, autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant, and sporadic inheritance patterns are involved?

primary

9
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primary or secondary immunodeficiency: acquired, transient/permanent diseases?

secondary

10
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primary or secondary immunodeficiency: protein caloric, malnutrition chemo, irradiation, malignancies, and immunosuppression?

secondary 

11
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the following are elements of the _____ that may be compromised in immunodeficiency:

  • BM precursor stem cells

  • blood cells (lymphs, neuts, monos)

  • soluble molecules (antibodies, cytokines, complement components)

immune system

12
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the following describes defects in ____ immunity:

  • results in pyogenic bacterial infections (staph. aureus, H. flu, pneumococcus)

    • particularly of the upper and lower respiratory tract, GI malabsorption, slow growth, recurrent otitis media, sinusitis, and pneumonia

humoral

13
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the following describes defects in ____ immunity:

  • results in recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens such as viruses, fungi (commonly Candida), and intracellular bacteria

  • patients are prone to disseminated viral infections, especially with latent viruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella zoster, CMV)

  • more susceptible to developing certain cancer types

t cell mediated 

14
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the following describes defects in ____ immunity:

  • neutrophils must adhere to vascular endothelial lining cells, migrate through capillary wall to a site of infection, and ingest and kill microbes

    • defects affecting each of these steps can lead to an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections

phagocytic 

15
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the following describes defects in ____:

  • results in pyogenic infections

    • recurrent Neisseria infections 

    • rheumatic and connective tissue diseases

complement

16
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____ normally produces inflammatory molecules and lysis of organisms.

complement

17
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disorders of ____ immunity refer to B cell differentiation and antibody production.

humoral 

18
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the onset of disorders of ____ immunity are after 6 months of age and can present in adulthood.

humoral

19
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the onset of ____ disorders immunity is before 6 months of age.

t cell and mixed

20
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the onset of ____ disorders immunity are in infancy or childhood.

phagocytic

21
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the onset of ____ disorders immunity are in any age.

complement 

22
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the following patterns of infection are associated with ____ immunity disorders:

  • encapsulated bacteria

  • fungi and parasites: Giardia lamblia, Cryptosporidium species

  • virus: enterovirus

humoral

23
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the following patterns of infection are associated with ____ disorders:

  • various opportunistic infections:

    • Mycobacterium species

    • cytomegalovirus

    • EBV

    • varicella virus

    • enterovirus

    • Candida species

    • Pneumocystic carinii (pneumonia)

t cell and mixed

24
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the following patterns of infection are associated with ____ disorders:

  • bacteria: staphylococcus aureus

  • fungi and parasites: Candida species, Nocardia species, Aspergillus species

phagocytic

25
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the following patterns of infection are associated with ____ disorders:

  • Neisseria infections

    • meningococcal and gonococcal infections

complement

26
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the following features are associated with ____ immunity disorders:

  • recurrent infections: sinus infections, otitis media, bronchiectasis 

  • chronic GI tract problems: malabsorption, autoimmunity

humoral 

27
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the following features are associated with ____ disorders:

  • failure to thrive

  • oral thrush

  • GVHD from maternal lymphocytes

  • excess diarrhea

t cell and mixed

28
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the following features are associated with ____ disorders:

  • unusually severe infections by common pathogens

  • granuloma formation

  • poor wound healing

  • abscesses, skin infection

  • oral cavity infections

phagocytic

29
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the following features are associated with ____ disorders:

  • rheumatoid disorders

  • lupus-like syndrome

  • scleroderma

complement 

30
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which category of primary immune deficiency diseases (PIDs) refers to predominantly antibody deficiencies?

3

31
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which condition lacks circulating mature CD19 positive B cells with no plasma cells?

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

32
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bruton’s agammaglobulinemia can be differentiated from transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy by the absence of _____ positive B cells in the peripheral blood.

CD19

33
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what condition exhibits a deficiency or lack of all immunoglobulins of all classes?

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

34
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what type of cell immunodeficiency is bruton’s agammaglobulinemia?

B cell

35
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what condition refers to patients having no plasma cells in their lymphoid tissues, but they have pre-B cells in their bone marrow?

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

36
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what condition refers to a recurrent sinopulmonary infection by encapsulated organisms (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae) bacterial otitis media?

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

37
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in bruton’s agammaglobulinemia, what cells are normal in number and function?

T cells

38
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in what condition may patients develop recurrent bacterial infections beginning of infancy as the maternal antibody is cleared?

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

39
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in bruton’s agammaglobulinemia, the lack of the ____ enzyme causes a failure of Vh gene rearrangement.

Btk

40
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bruton’s agammaglobulinemia is treated with IM or IV IG. true or false?

true

41
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most patients with IgA deficiency are symptomatic. true or false?

false

42
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which condition may be associated with the following symptoms:

  • sino-pulmonary infections

  • GI infections

  • allergies

  • increased tendency to autoimmune diseases (SLE, RA, immune thrombocytopenia)

IgA deficiency

43
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allergic disorders and malignancies are more common among ____ patients.

IgA deficiency

44
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impaired differentiation of B cells to become IgA producing plasma cells is associated with which condition?

IgA deficiency

45
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IgA deficiency patients must only receive plasma products from other IgA deficient patients. true or false?

true

46
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why do IgA deficiency patients only receive plasma products from other IgA deficient patients?

possible anaphylactic reaction

47
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why are patients with IgA deficiency not given transfusion of gamma globulins or other protein containing blood components?

possible anaphylactic reaction

48
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IgA (IM or IV) has a very long half-life. true or false?

false

49
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____ is unable to be transported to secretory sites (mucosal surfaces) due to their short half-life.

IgA

50
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antibiotics may be used to treat IgA deficiency. true or false?

true

51
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what is the most common PID with a severe clinical syndrome that requires medical attention?

CVID

52
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what condition is associated with the following characteristics:

  • slow decline in more than one class of immunoglobulins

  • sinopulmonary infections (usually bacterial origin) beginning in adolescence 

  • increased episode of pneumonia

  • increased risk in autoimmune diseases

CVID

53
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what condition is associated with history of recurrent otitis media in childhood?

CVID

54
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what condition is associated with the following characteristics:

  • normal numbers of mature B cells 

    • inability to become memory B cells (CD27+) and plasma cells 

    • decreased activation of B cells in germinal centers

CVID

55
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CVID is primarily ____ deficient and demonstrate marked decrease in IgG levels due to certain subclasses.

IgA

56
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in CVID, ____ often leads to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly sinusitis and pneumonia.

hypogammaglobulinemia

57
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what is the most common genetic susceptibility locus for CVID?

MHC

58
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what condition is diagnosed when patients with recurrent bacterial infections demonstrate low serum immunoglobulin levels?

CVID

59
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in CVID, there is a lack or decrease in the levels of blood group ____.

isohemagglutinins

60
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what condition refers to when one or more levels of the 4 IgG subclasses lower than the RI?

isolated IgG subclass deficiency

61
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in isolated IgG subclass deficiency, normally about ____% of the total IgG is IgG1, 23% IgG2, 7% IgG3, and 4% IgG4

66%

62
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in patients with isolated IgG subclass deficiency with ____, levels of different subclasses should be measured if the total IgG level is normal, but the clinical picture suggests immunoglobulin deficiency.

recurrent infections 

63
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_____ deficiencies refers to defects in both humoral (B cell) and cell mediated (T cell) immunity can be caused by mutations in any of several genes:

  • defect that affects development of both types of lymphocytes

  • defective interaction between two limbs of immune system

combined

64
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____ deficiencies are referred to using a shorthand of T+/-/B+/-/NK+/-, with the superscript +/- denoting whether each cell type is deficient.

combined 

65
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what refers to the most severe of the congenital immune deficiencies?

SCID

66
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what conditions refers to a group of related diseases that affect T and B cell function with differing etiologies?

SCID

67
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x-linked SCID is the most rare form of the disease. true or false?

false 

68
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the most frequent mutation of SCID is in the ____ gene (located on the X chromosome, root cause of most SCID).

IL2RG

69
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what gene encodes common gamma chain?

IL2RG

70
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what refers to a cytokine receptor subunit that is common to the receptor complexes for at least 6 different interleukin receptors: IL-2, IL-4, IL-7, IL-9, IL-15, and IL-21 receptor?

common gamma chain

71
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when the IL2RG gene encodes the common gamma chain, ____ maturation is halted due to defective cytokine signaling.

lymphocyte

72
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____ is most commonly expressed in T cells and NK cells.

JAK3

73
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what is required for processing an interleukin-binding signal from the cell membrane to the nucleus?

JAK3

74
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what is involved in signal transduction by receptors that employ the common gamma chain (yc)?

JAK3

75
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JAK3 deficiency can cause an autosomal ____ disease with the T-B+NK- phenotype.

SCID

76
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about 15-20% of SICD patients have an adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, leading to the ____ phenotype.

T-B-NK- 

77
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what gene is located on chromosome 1, region q21?

ADA

78
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what deficiency affects an enzymes involved in the metabolism of purines?

ADA

79
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what deficiency is similar to another form of PID (PNP deficiency) due to the effects on enzyme involvement in purine metabolism?

ADA

80
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in____ deficiency, toxic metabolites of purines accumulate in lymphoid cells and impair proliferation of both B and T cells.

ADA

81
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in both ADA and PNP deficiency, there is a progressive decrease in _____ numbers.

lymphocyte

82
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RAG-1 or RAG-2 (recombinase-activating) gene deficiency lack both T cells and B cells but have functioning ____.

NK cells

83
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RAG-1 or RAG-2 (recombinase-activating) gene deficiency has profound lymphocytopenia (elimination of B and T cell precursors during development. true or false?

true

84
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in RAG-1 or RAG-2 (recombinase-activating) gene deficiency, there is increased MHC-II molecule expression. true or false?

false

85
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in RAG-1 or RAG-2 (recombinase-activating) gene deficiency, a mutation in the pan-leukocyte antigen ____ may result in a transmembrane phosphate that regulates signal transduction of T and B cell receptors.

CD45