epilepsy - dr krysiak

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70 Terms

1
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what is epilepsy?

neurologic condition in which a pt is prone to recurrent and unpredictable epileptic seizures

2
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T/F all patients that have a seizure will be diagnosed with epilepsy

FALSE

all pts with epilepsy have seizures, but NOT all pts with a seizure will have epilepsy

3
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what are the 2 most common triggers?

hyperventilation

photo stimulation (flashing lights)

4
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what drugs can lower the seizure threshold in high doses and renal impairment?

carbapenems (imipenem)

lithium

meperidine

PCN

quinolones

theophylline

5
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what other drugs can lower the seizure threshold?

clozapine

bupropion

tramadol

varenicline

6
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what causes epilepsy?

neuronal hyperexcitability + hypersynchronization

7
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hyperexcitability can happen because of an imbalance between _________

glutamate (excitatory) and GABA (inhibitory)

8
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what are the 3 key features when classifying epilepsy?

where seizures start in the brain

level of awareness during seizure

other seizure featurs: nonmotor and motor symptoms

9
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_______ seizures start on one side of the brain, have asymmetrical motor manifestation, may have aura, and may/may not have loss of consciousness

a. focal

b. generalized

c. unknown

a.

10
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________ seizures start bilaterally, sudden interruption of activities, loss of awareness or consciousness

a. focal

b. generalized

c. unknown

b.

11
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differentiate between focal seizures and generalized seizures

focal

generalized

sides

unilateral

bilateral

motor signs

asymmetrical

both sides

nonmotor signs

autonomic: flushing, sweating, piloerection

behavior arrest: pausing, freezing, activity arrest

cognitive: language problems, thinking problems

emotion: fear, depression, joy, anger

sensory: numbness, tingling, vertigo

sudden arrest of behavior

blank stare with brief upward rotation of eye lasting 2-30 seconds

eyelid jerks

12
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how does ILAE define epilepsy?

≥ 2 unprovoked seizures > 24 hours apart

or

1 unprovoked seizure and probability of further seizures (high risk features)

13
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what high risk features can classify someone with epilepsy after 1 seizure?

abnormal brain imaging

epileptiform activity on EEG

relevant family history

neurological deficit

prior brain injury or structural lesion

14
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T/F there are NO diagnostic laboratory tests for epilepsy

TRUE

serum prolactin levels are elevated after convulsions, but need to get within 10-20 minutes of seizure

15
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what is the gold standard for diagnosis of epilepsy?

who is it reserved for?

gold standard: video EEG

reserved for pts unresponsive to meds or difficult to characterize

16
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list the goals of treatment of epilepsy

sustained seizure freedom

matching seizure disorder with appropriate ASM

minimizing ADRs

optimizing pts quality of life

monotherapy when possible

rational cost-effective decisions

17
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_______ unprovoked seizures should be started on AED

2 or more

18
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what is a major reason that seizures are not controlled?

lack of adherence

19
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is there a target serum level for AEDs?

NO

just titrate up until they are seizure free

20
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what should you do if the first monotherapy is ineffective?

add a second AED (different MOA)

taper off the first one

21
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what should you do if the second AED is ineffective?

polytherapy

22
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if someone is “medication-resistant”, what are some nonpharm tx options?

ketogenic diet

vagus nerve stimulation (VNA)

surgery

23
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list the sodium channel blockers

carbamazepine

lamotrigine

phenytoin

oxcarbazepine

24
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list the calcium channel blockers

ethosuximide

gabapentin

25
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list the GABA enhancers

benzodiazepines

tiagabine

phenobarbital

vigabatrin

26
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list the glutamate inhibitors

levetiracetam

valproate

27
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what drug is a potent inducer of CYP3A4 and an auto-inducer?

carbamazepine

28
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what drug has a boxed warning for increased risk of SJS/TEN with HLA-B*1502 allele in Asian population?

carbamazepine

29
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oxcarbazepine is an inhibitor of _______ and inducer of ________

inhibitor of CYP2C19

inducer of CYP3A4

30
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what’s important about the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin?

Michaelis-Menten kinetics —> saturates metabolizing enzymes at higher doses

31
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since 90% total phenytoin is protein bound, what lab value do we need to look out for with regards to phenytoin levels?

albumin

if low (<3.5 g/dL), then total phenytoin levels will be falsely low or normal

32
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the boxed warning for phenytoin IV administration rate should not exceed _______

50 mg/min

33
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what are the long term ADRs of phenytoin?

hirsutism

gingival hyperplasia

hepatotoxicity

34
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what is the prodrug of phenytoin?

what is it’s advantage compared to phenytoin?

fosphenytoin

LOWER risk of purple-glove syndrome

35
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when do you use a lower starting dose of lamotrigine XR (blue box)?

pts taking valproate

36
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when do you use a higher starting dose of lamotrigine XR (green box)?

pts taking inducers (carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, or primidone)

NOT taking valproate

37
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what does lamotrigine have a boxed warning for?

serious skin reactions: SJS/TEN

higher risk: higher dosing, quick dose escalation, used with valproic acid

38
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what is the drug of choice for absence seizures?

ethosuximide

39
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what is the boxed warning for benzodiazepines (clonazepam, clobazam)?

concurrent use with opioids may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, and death

40
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valproic acid/valproate is an inhibitor of ______

CYP2C9

41
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what are the boxed warnings associated with valproic acid/valproate?

hepatic failure

fetal harm

pancreatitis

42
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what drug prolongs PR interval, leading to an increased risk of arrhythmias, requiring an ECG prior to use?

lacosamide

43
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topiramate is a weak inhibitor of _______ and inducer of ______

weak inhibitor of CYP2C19

inducer of CYP3A4

44
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what is contraindicated with Trokendi XR (topiramate)?

alcohol use 6 hours before/after dose

45
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what is contraindicated with zonisamide?

hypersensitivity to sulfa

46
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what are the boxed warnings for felbamate (felbatol)?

hepatic failure

aplastic anemia

(within 68-354 days of therapy)

47
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what drug requires informed consent to be signed by pt and prescriber prior to dispensing?

felbamate (felbatol)

48
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what drug is a prodrug that undergoes hydrolysis to S-licarbazepine and is a major metabolite of oxcarbazepine?

eslicarbazepine (aptiom)

49
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what drug requires a REMS program because of the risk of vision loss?

vigabatrin (sabril)

50
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what AEDs may potentially precipitate or aggravate generalized onset tonic-clonic seizure types?

carbamazepine

phenytoin

51
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what AEDs may potentially precipitate or aggravate children with absence seizures or JME?

carbamazepine

gabapentin

oxcarbazepine

phenytoin

tiagabine

vigabatrin

52
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T/F the efficacy of newer AEDs is considered less than that of older AEDs

FALSE

comparable

53
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what drugs require SLOW titration?

lamotrigine

topiramate

clobazam

phenobarbital

54
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how does ILAE define drug resistance in epilepsy?

failure of adequate trials of 2 tolerated and appropriately chosen and used ASD schedules to achieve sustained seizure freedom

55
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what are common ADRs for AEDs as a class?

CNS effects

suicidal ideation

hypersensitivity reactions

osteoporosis

56
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how can you manage CNS effects from AEDs?

titrate slowly

avoid polytherapy

57
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when is the risk higher for hypersensitivity reactions?

during first 2 months of usage

HLA-B*1502 allele

58
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hypersensitivity reactions are associated with ____________

aromatic anticonvulsants

-carbamazepine

-ethosuximide

-lamotrigine

-oxcarbazepine

-phenobarbital

-phenytoin

-primidone

59
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list pt counseling points

can cause suicidal thoughts or actions

do NOT stop taking this med without consulting your healthcare provider

can impair judgment, thinking, and coordination

avoid drugs that can lower seizure threshold

avoid st john’s wort with all anticonvulsants

use caution with different generic substitutions

60
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when can you consider withdrawing AEDs?

seizure free period of 2-5 years

history of a single type of focal seizure or primary generalized seizure

normal neurologic exam and normal IQ

EEG that has normalized with tx

61
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should you discontinue AEDs abruptly?

NO

DO IT GRADUALLY

62
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what is the drug of choice for focal onset seizures in elderly?

lamotrigine

63
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what do we need to consider in elderly pts?

more sensitive to neurocognitive effects —> titrate SLOWLY

requires lower serum concentrations

64
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what meds decrease efficacy of oral contraceptives?

carbamazepine

topiramate

oxcarbazepine

rufinamide

lamotrigine

clobazam

felbamate

65
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what meds do NOT affect oral contraceptives?

valproic acid

benzodiazepines

gabapentin

levetiracetam

tiagabine

zonisamide

lacosamide

66
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when should folic acid be supplemented?

any woman of childbearing age taking an AED

pregnant women

67
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during pregnancy, what drugs have increased clearance and should monitor plasma levels prior to, during pregnancy, and postpartum?

lamotrigine

carbamazepine

phenytoin

levetiracetam

68
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what AEDs cause fetal harm?

carbamazepine

valproic acid

lacosamide

topiramate

69
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what drug has the highest risk of major congenital malformations in pregnancy?

valproic acid

70
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what drug has a high association with cleft palate?

topiramate