Lecture 5: Fluoroquinolones, Novobiocin, and Rifampin

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34 Terms

1
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What is the MOA for FQs and how do they affect overall bacterial cell morphology?

inhibit DNA gyrase → bacterial DNA uncoiled and cannoffit within cell → also inhibit topoisomerase → bacteriocidal

2
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Name the MOAs for novobiocin and rifampin and classify each based on bacterial killing versus stasis.

novobiocin: prevents ATP from binding to DNA gyrase, but no effect on topoisomerase - bacteriostatic

rifampin: inhibits RNA polymerase, bactericidal

3
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What subgroup of bacteria are unaffected by any of the 5 veterinary FQs?

anaerobes

4
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Why could FQs be considered designer drugs”?

each chemical addition can broaden or narrow the spectrum:

  • to target a specific bug

  • kill everything

  • circumvent resistance

5
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What is the main method of resistance to fluoroquinolones?

point mutations in DNA gyrase genes → plasma FQ conc. cannot > MIC

6
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Describe the MIC-MPC relationship for FQs.

mutation prevention concentration (MPC) is MIC x 5 or10 → Cmax must exceed the MPC during the dosing interval or else resistance will develop during treatment

7
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Describe 3 side effects of FQs in dogs, 1 in cats, and 1 in horses?

dogs: chondrotoxic in neonates/juveniles (damages mitochondria in immature articular chondrocytes, exacerbates sz in epileptic dogs due to GAB-R antagonism, Herxheimer’s reaction

cats: retinopathies

horses: chondrotoxic in neonates/juveniles

8
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Describe the pharmacokinetics of FQs.

  • concentrates in WBCs, brain, and prostate

  • well absorbed orally

  • low plasma protein binding, high Vd

  • excreted mostly unchanged in urine → good vs UTIs and no worries about drug metabolism in patients with hepatopathies

9
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What are the precautions/legal limitations of FQs in food animals?

  • never first choice unless potentially fatal malady or antibiogram

  • inhibit cP450 enzymes, especially enrofloxacin

  • banned in poultry → leads to FQ-R Campylobacter in poultry

  • Do not take enrofloxacin → depression and hallucinations

  • No extra-label use in food animals

10
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Name 2 drug interactions of FQs.

  • antacids → FQs poorly absorbed

  • enrofloxacin → depression and hallucinations

11
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What is novobiocin used to treat?

staph aureus, “dry cow” mastitis tx with penicillin

12
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What is rifampin used to treat?

  • Rhodococcus equi in horses along with clarithromycin

  • deep pyodermas with a cephalosporin

  • M. bovis in oryx

13
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What are the toxicity issues associated with rifampin?

  • inducer of microsomal enzymes

  • immune-mediated hepatitis, dogs on prolonged tx

  • causes orange discoloration of body fluids like sweat, urine, and saliva

14
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What FQs are used to treat BRD?

enrofloxacin or danofloxacin or pradofloxacin

15
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What FQs are used to treat feline respiratory disease?

orbifloxacin/marbofloxacin/pradofloxacin

16
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What are the mechanisms of action for sulfonamides and benzylpyrimidines?

  • Both inhibit the folate metabolic pathway by mimicking PABA

  • BPs inhibit an enzyme downstream

  • bacteriostatic alone, bacteriocidal together

17
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Explain why sulfonamides and benzylpyrimidines do not have a significant effect on the analogous pathway in most eukaryotes.

folate metabolic pathway is present in eukaryotes but:

  • most folate is ingested 

  • sulfas and BPs cannot bind to eukaryotic enzymes

  • methotrexate will inhibit DHFR in eukaryotes

18
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Evaluate resistance vs. sensitivity/susceptibility in regards to sulfonamide and benzylpyrimidine combinations.

  • If a bacteria is resistant to a sulfa then it will be resistant to the S+BP combination

  • if a bacteria is sensitive to a sulfa then it will be sensitive to the S+BP combination

19
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Describe (remember) the exploitable pharmacogenetic situation regarding dogs and the pharmacokinetics of benzylpyrimidines.

  • eliminated faster in alkaline urine

  • trimethoprim 10x concentrates in the dog prostate: used vs prostatitis

20
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Name four side effects of sulfonamides.

  • keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs

  • arthritis in dobermans (especially sulfasalazine)

  • decreases sperm counts in male breeding dogs (sulfasalazine)

  • growth promotant on rickettsial diseases

21
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What pathogen group should NOT be treated with sulfonamides and why?

rickettsial diseases because sulfas act as growth promotants

22
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What is the basis for resistance to sulfonamides and benzylpyrimidines?

  • alterations in target enzymes (DHPS and DHFR)

  • development of alternate folate synthesis or uptake pathway

23
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Why are sulfonamides and benzylpyrimidines ineffective in abscesses or pus?

abscesses have a lot of free folate and therefore bacteria do not have to synthesize their own folate → hindering the pathway does nothing

24
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Name the two sulfonamides used versus enteric infections and why these drugs are used as such.

  • sulfaguanidine because it is not absorbed from the intestines

  • sulfasalazine because it is cleaved in the intestines to sulfapyridine + salicylate → net effect is an antibacterial PLUS and anti-inflammatory

25
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Which bacterial (morphologic) group is resistant to these sulfonamides?

  • mycobacteria and mycoplasma

  • spirochetes

26
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How do ionophores work and what species is very sensitive to these drugs?

ionophore inserts into cell wall and binds Na+, K+, and H+ → results in lethal drop in pH → Gm (+) bactericidal and bacteriostatic for coccidia → causes toxic myopathies in horses

27
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Name two non-infectious uses for ionophores.

  • growth promotant in cattle

  • eliminates lactate- and methane-producing rumen bacteria → more proprionate produced for energy and decreased methane prevents bloat

28
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What is the MOA of polymyxins?

binds to LPS on bacterial cell wall (only works on Gm -) → binding disrupts cell wall = bacteriocidal

29
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When are polymyxins used?

equine endotoxemia slo IV

30
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When is metronidazole used?

  • osteomyelitis

  • C. difficle diarrhea

  • anal saculitis

  • IBD

31
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When is ronidazole used?

  • feline GI tritrichomonas

32
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What is the MOA of metronidazole?

MNDZ enters pathogen → drug converted to electrophile → binds to DNA → DNA breaks apart = bactericidal

33
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What is included in the spectrum of metronidazole?

  • anaerobes

  • all protozoa are sensitive

  • anthelminthic

34
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What are the potential toxicities of metronidazole?

  • peripheral neuropathy: reversible if tx with diazepam

  • carcinogenesis