NBCE 2 Practice Questions Radiology

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60 Terms

1
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what is the most common location for an enchondroma?

a. hand

b. knee

c. pelvis

d. leg

a

2
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osteomyelitis is most likely to be a complication of ____?

a. pagets disease

b. MM

c. diabetes mellitus

d. sickle cell anemia

c

3
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which of the following benign bone tumors, has no health concerns and presents with vertical striations on a radiograph?

a. osteoid osteoma

b. fibrous dysplasia

c. hemangioma

d. neurofibroma

c

4
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what is the most common location for an osteosarcoma?

a. knee

b. pelvis

c. shoulder

d. spine

a

5
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what is the lab test used to diagnose AS?

a. RA latex

b. HLA B8

c. chest expansion

d. HLA B27

d

6
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what is the most common arthritis in elderly?

a. RA

b. psoriatic arthritis

c. metabolic arthritis

d. osteoarthritis

d

7
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what is the fibular deviation called that is seen with RA?

a. boutonniere deformity

b. lanois deformity

c. swan neck deformity

d. dupuytren's contracture

b

8
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which muscle of the shoulder is most likely to cause HADD?

a. subscapularis

b. supraspinatus

c. deltoid

d. infraspinatus

b

9
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what type of salter Harris fracture is slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

a. type 1

b. type 2

c. type 3

d. type 4

a

10
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what is the most common vertebral level for degenerative spondylolisthesis?

a. L2

b. L3

c. L4

d. L5

c

11
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the patient presents with short webbed neck, low hairline, and decreased cervical ROM. what is the most likely diagnosis?

a. omovertebral bone

b. sprengel's deformity

c. klippel feil syndrome

d. blocked vertebra

c

12
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which of the following best describes tropism?

a. lack of growth of a bone

b. asymmetrical facets

c. overriding of the facets

d. periosteal reaction

b

13
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what type of defect is tropism?

a. injury

b. septic

c. symmetrical

d. congenital

d

14
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an alteration in the spinolaminar line may indicate which of the following?

a. posterior posticus

b. increased ADI

c. spina bifida vera

d. wasp waist deformity

b

15
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a rugger jersey appearance of the vertebrae seen on a radiograph is indicative of?

a. hyperparathyroidism

b. hypothyroidism

c. hemangioma

d. mets

a

16
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what modality uses the greatest amount of ionizing radiation?

a. DEXA

b. CT

c. MRI

d. ultrasound

b

17
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what can cause basilar invagination?

a. pagets disease

b. osteoporosis

c. Jefferson fracture

d. atlantoaxial instability

a

18
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what is a common radiographic finding in those with acromegaly?

a. increased heel pad measurement

b. congenital block

c. cortical thickening

d. sabre shin deformity

a

19
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how would you make even density on a lateral thoracic image?

a. filter on the lower half

b. decreased OFD

c. increased FFD

d. using blue green tint

a

20
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the anatomy on an image is _____ due to _____?

a. larger, divergence

b. larger, convergence

c. smaller, divergence

d. smaller, convergence

a

21
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which of the following is the greatest benefit of collimation?

a. protect film from scatter

b. decrease patient exposure

c. reduce scatter radiation

d. use less radiation

c

22
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which is the best view to visualize the sella turcica?

a. AP skull

b. lateral skull

c. APLC

d. PA skull

b

23
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the best way to take an AP hip radiograph is which of the following?

a. 15* internal rotation

b. 15* external rotation

c. increase the MAS and decrease KVP

d. eliminate the grid

a

24
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the inverse square law is best defined as _____?

a. the intensity of the radiation varies directly with the square of the distance

b. the intensity of the radiation varies inversely with the square of the distance

c. the intestine of the radiation is altered directly with the distance

d. the intensity of the radiation varies depending upon the thickness of the object

b

25
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a male aged 32 presents with dagger sign on X-ray. what condition?

a. reactive arthritis

b. RA

c. AS

d. psoriatic arthritis

c

26
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a fracture seen on the convex side of a long bone in a child where the fracture does not go through the diaphysis is called a ____?

a. torus

b. greenstick

c. compound

d. stress

b

27
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which of the following will result in structural scoliosis?

a. congenital block

b. butterfly vertebre

c. facet tropism

d. hemivertebra

d

28
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which of the following presents with wasp waist deformity?

a. butterfly vertbra

b. ponticus posticus

c. congenital block

d. facet tropism

c

29
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the ADI space is measured from the ____?

a . anterior arch of atlas to posterior arch of atlas

b. anterior arch of atlas to anterior dens

c. posterior arch of atlas to posterior dens

d. posterior arch of atlas to anterior dens

b

30
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which of the following is located in the cathode?

a. focal spot

b. positive electrode

c. filament

d. rotating target

c

31
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what is the best line of treatment for scoliosis due to hemivertebra?

a. aggressive treatment within first 6 months of life

b. do nothing until patients becomes adult and then do surgery

c. conservative treatment through adolescence

d. removal of hemivertebra by surgery at 5-10 years of age

d

32
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how does bone metabolic activity show up on a bone scan?

a. radiolucent

b. cold spot

c. hot spot

d. black

c or d

33
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which xray view is best to visualize cervicothoracic junction?

a. AP

b. pillar view

c. swimmers

d. oblique

c

34
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Einstein's measurement of less than 10 mm indicates which?

a. normal

b. spinal canal stenosis

c. klippel feil

d. osteoblastoma

b

35
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which of the following will decrease magnification and distortion?

a. decrease object film distance

b. decrease focal film distance

c. increase object film distance

d. decrease SID

a

36
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which xray view is best to diagnose a posterior fat pad sign at elbow?

a. ap

b. lateral

c. medial oblique

d. pa

b

37
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a fracture in which the skin is pierced is termed?

a. stress

b. greenstick

c. comminuted

d. open

d

38
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which of the following results from failure of the lateral vertebral body to develop?

a. block vertebra

b. hemivertebra

c. agenesis of pedicle

d. facet tropism

b

39
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what is the purpose of the collimator?

a. reduces the amount of electrons to the film

b. increases the surface area when taking the film

c. increase the amount of radiation to the patient

d. allows for greater contrast

a

40
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which of the following will minimize magnification on xray?

a. decreased FFD

b. increased SID

c. increased OFD

d. increased MAS

b

41
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what are two points of measurement to determine the size of the spinal canal?

a. posterior body line to the facets

b. posterior body line to the spinolaminar line

c. posterior body line to tip of SP

d. pedicle to TP

a

42
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on an AP thoracic xray there is a missing pedicle. the contralateral pedicle is sclerotic in comparison to the other pedicles. this is most probably due to?

a. lytic mets

b. benign bone tumor

c. hemivertebra

d. agenesis of pedicle

d

43
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a lateral elbow film is taken at _____ degrees of elbow flexion with thumb extended ____ to the film

a. 45, parallel

b. 45, perpendicular

c. 90, parallel

d. 90, perpendicular

d

44
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the patient presents with pain and stiffness at the level of T3/T4 each morning when he wakes up. this has been happening for the past 3 months. what is the likely explanation for this patient?

a. AS

b. scheuermanns

c. facet problem

d. spondylolisthesis

c

45
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which of the following is the correct way to take an AP pelvic xray?

a. 15* external rotation

b. 15* internal rotation

c. 25* external rotation

d. 25* internal rotation

b

46
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what is the best modality to visualize an AAA?

a. tomography

b. ultrasonography

c. myelography

d. radiograph

a

47
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which of the following is best seen on a bone scan?

a. decreased ischemia

b. decreased osteoblastic activity

c. increased metabolic activity

d. MM

c

48
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the landmarks for measuring the ADI space are the _____ arch of the atlas and _____ portion of the odontoid?

a. anterior, posterior

b. posterior, anterior

c. anterior, anterior

d. posterior, posterior

c

49
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what is the best radiographic view to observe pancoast tumor?

a. apical lordotic

b. lateral chest

c. PA chest

d. AP chest

a

50
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which of the following is the best view to visualize the retrocardiac and retrosternal space?

a. lateral chest

b. AP chest

c. PA chest

d. swimmers

a

51
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which condition presents with a winking owl sign?

a. plastic mets

b. lytic mets

c. pagets disease

d. congenital agenesis of the pedicle

b and c

52
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which of the following lines is best to assess a fracture of the calcaneus?

a. kleins line

b. shentons line

c. skinners line

d. boehlers angle

d

53
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what is the position of the elbow when taking an AP view?

a. elbow flexed 90*

b. elbow flexed to 180*

c. elbow extended

d. forearm pronated

c

54
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which of the following is not a component of a diagnostic radiograph?

a. long wave length

b. xrays flowing in a straight line

c. turing objects florescent

d. using a rectifier

a

55
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what color is abdominal gas on xray?

a. gray

b. white

c. black

d. not visible

c

56
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which metatarsal is most commonly fractured?

a. 1st

b. 2nd

c. 3rd

d. 4th

b

57
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which condition is the most common cause of neurogenic arthropathy?

a. leprosy

b. prior injury

c. diabetes mellitus

d. spinal canal stenosis

c

58
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osteochondritis dissecans tends to affect which anatomical structure?

a. lateral aspect of lateral femoral condyle

b. lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle

c. medial aspect of lateral femoral condyle

d. medial aspect of medial femoral condyle

b

59
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which of the following bone conditions is relieved by taking salicylates?

a. aneurysmal bone cyst

b. osteoid osteoma

c. simple bone cyst

d. hemangioma

b

60
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which of the following conditions presents with hard, thick skin and raynauds?

a. SLE

b. rosacea

c. scleroderma

d. atherosclerosis

c