Criminal Law – Core Concepts & Cases

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering key doctrines, procedures, burdens, offences, defences and landmark cases in criminal law as presented in the lecture notes.

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84 Terms

1
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How is criminal law distinguished from tort and contract law in terms of public and private spheres?

Criminal law is public law because it affects society at large; tort and contract are private law because they primarily regulate relationships between private individuals.

2
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What are two primary purposes of criminalizing conduct besides punishment?

Setting behavioural standards that reflect societal values and deterring others from engaging in prohibited conduct.

3
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Which Act is the cornerstone of police powers and evidence gathering in England and Wales?

The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (PACE).

4
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What does PACE Code A regulate?

Stop-and-search powers.

5
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Which PACE code deals with the detention, treatment and questioning of suspects (non-terrorism)?

Code C.

6
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List the five main stages of the criminal process.

Investigation, Arrest & Charge, First Court Appearance, Trial, Verdict & Sentencing.

7
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Who decides issues of fact in a Crown Court trial?

The jury.

8
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Differentiate between summary, either-way, and indictable offences by court of trial.

Summary: Magistrates’ Court only; Either-way: Magistrates’ or Crown Court depending on seriousness; Indictable: always Crown Court with a jury.

9
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What is meant by the evidential burden on a defendant?

The need to produce some evidence that raises a viable issue before the jury; no standard of proof is required from the defence.

10
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Under Woolmington v DPP (1935), who bears the legal burden of proof in criminal cases?

The prosecution, who must prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

11
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Define actus reus in simple terms.

The external elements of an offence – the prohibited act, omission, consequence or circumstances.

12
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Give an example of a ‘conduct’ crime.

Drink-driving (the act of driving while over the limit is the offence regardless of consequence).

13
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What test from R v White determines factual causation?

'But for' test – but for the defendant’s act, would the result have occurred?

14
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State the de minimis rule for legal causation.

The defendant’s conduct must be more than a minimal cause of the prohibited consequence.

15
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Explain the thin-skull rule.

Take your victim as you find them – the defendant is liable for the full extent of harm even if the victim has a pre-existing vulnerability.

16
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What is a novus actus interveniens?

A new intervening act that breaks the chain of causation between the defendant’s conduct and the result.

17
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Which case illustrated that turning off the engine while a police officer’s foot was trapped can form actus reus through continuing act?

Fagan v Metropolitan Police Commissioner.

18
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How did R v Pagett (1983) treat acts of third parties in causation?

Police return-fire was reasonably foreseeable and did not break the chain; defendant remained liable.

19
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List the five categories that create a duty to act leading to criminal liability for omissions.

Special relationship, voluntary assumption of care, contractual duty, statutory duty, creating a dangerous situation.

20
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Which case established liability for failure to avert danger one has created (dangerous situation)?

R v Miller (1983).

21
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Define direct intent.

Defendant’s aim or purpose is to bring about the prohibited consequence.

22
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What two-stage test for oblique intent was approved in R v Woollin?

Death or serious injury is virtually certain from D’s act, and D appreciates that virtual certainty.

23
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How is subjective recklessness defined after R v Cunningham?

Defendant foresaw a risk of harm and unreasonably went on to take that risk.

24
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What objective recklessness test was introduced in MPC v Caldwell (now largely abandoned)?

Whether an obvious risk would have been apparent to the reasonable person, and the defendant failed to consider it.

25
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State Sir Edward Coke’s classic common law definition of murder in one phrase.

Unlawfully killing a reasonable creature in being under the Queen’s peace with malice aforethought.

26
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What four mental states satisfy malice aforethought for murder?

Intention to kill, intention to cause GBH, foresight of death as virtually certain, foresight of GBH as virtually certain.

27
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What rule about the timing of death was abolished by the Law Reform (Year and a Day Rule) Act 1996?

Death must occur within a year and a day of the injurious act.

28
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Which partial defence can reduce murder to manslaughter when the defendant’s mental responsibility is substantially impaired?

Diminished Responsibility (Homicide Act 1957 as amended by Coroners and Justice Act 2009).

29
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Name three abilities that must be substantially impaired for diminished responsibility.

Understanding the nature of conduct, forming a rational judgment, exercising self-control.

30
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What is required for the defence of loss of control under s.54–55 CJA 2009?

Loss of self-control, a qualifying trigger (fear of serious violence or extremely grave wrong), and an objective test of a person of D’s age and sex with normal tolerance acting similarly.

31
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Under s.54(4) CJA 2009, when is loss of control not available?

If D acted in a considered desire for revenge.

32
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Why was Clinton (2012) significant for loss of control?

It clarified that sexual infidelity alone is excluded but may be relevant with other factors; allowed appeal where multiple provocative factors existed.

33
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State the four-part Adomako test for gross negligence manslaughter.

Duty of care, breach of duty, breach caused death, breach was grossly negligent and deserving of criminal punishment.

34
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In gross negligence manslaughter, whose viewpoint sets the ‘gross’ threshold?

The jury, guided to decide whether the negligence was so exceptionally bad as to be criminal.

35
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Define constructive (unlawful act) manslaughter in one sentence.

Where D intentionally commits a dangerous unlawful act that a reasonable person would see as risking harm and that act causes death.

36
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Which case confirmed that mere omissions cannot found constructive manslaughter?

R v Lowe (1973).

37
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What test of dangerousness for unlawful act manslaughter was set in R v Church?

Would a sober and reasonable person recognise the act as subjecting the victim to the risk of some harm?

38
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How did Kennedy (No.2) 2007 adjust causation for drug-injection deaths?

Self-injection by a fully informed adult breaks the causal chain, absolving the supplier of liability for death.

39
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Give the legal test for insanity from the M’Naghten Rules.

Defect of reason, caused by disease of the mind, so that D either did not know the nature and quality of the act or did not know it was wrong.

40
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What diabetic state counts as insanity and why?

Hyperglycaemia (high blood sugar) because it is an internal factor: disease of the mind (R v Hennessy).

41
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Which opposite diabetic condition falls under non-insane automatism?

Hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar) – external factor from excess insulin (R v Quick).

42
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State Lord Denning’s definition of automatism.

An act done by the muscles without any control by the mind, or by a person not conscious of what they are doing.

43
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What must be shown for non-insane automatism to succeed?

Total loss of voluntary control caused by an external factor.

44
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In AG’s Reference (No.2 of 1992), why did automatism fail?

Because the lorry driver retained some control (‘driving with his eyes open’) – only partial loss, not total.

45
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What are the five recognised medical conditions often accepted for diminished responsibility?

Schizophrenia, psychosis, psychopathy, organic brain disorder, severe depression (plus other recognised disorders).

46
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How does intoxication interact with diminished responsibility post-Dietschmann?

If a recognised medical abnormality substantially impaired D, the jury may ignore the contributory effect of alcohol and still allow the defence.

47
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Which element of loss of control was removed compared to the old provocation defence?

The requirement that the loss of control be sudden.

48
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Name the two statutory sources of criminal law.

Statute and common law.

49
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What standard of proof must the prosecution achieve in criminal trials?

Beyond reasonable doubt (or ‘so that you are sure’).

50
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Who issues the PACE codes of practice?

The Secretary of State, under s.66 PACE 1984.

51
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Define ‘summary offence’ by maximum penalty example.

Minor offences such as most driving matters, punishable by fines, community orders, or short imprisonment.

52
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What is the maximum sentence for indictable offences like murder?

Life imprisonment.

53
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Which body conducts most prosecutions on behalf of the state in England and Wales?

The Crown Prosecution Service (CPS).

54
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Explain ‘reasonable creature in rerum natura’.

A human being who is alive and independent of the mother – only such a being can be the victim of murder.

55
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According to AG’s Ref (No.3 of 1994), is a foetus a reasonable creature?

No; the foetus is not a legal person until born alive and independent.

56
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What is meant by ‘under the Queen’s peace’?

The victim must not be an enemy combatant killed during lawful war; peace-time killings satisfy the element.

57
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Why was R v Blaue important for causation?

It applied the thin-skull rule to religious refusal of medical treatment – D remained liable for death.

58
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Give an example of a contractual duty leading to liability for omission.

R v Pittwood – gatekeeper failed to close railway gate, causing death.

59
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Which case illustrates voluntary assumption of care creating a duty to act?

R v Stone and Dobinson – failure to care for anorexic relative leading to death.

60
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What objective question must the jury consider in the third limb of loss of control?

Whether a person of D’s age and sex with normal tolerance in D’s circumstances might have reacted similarly.

61
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State one criticism of the ‘revenge exclusion’ in s.54(4) CJA 2009.

No statutory guidance on what level of consideration amounts to ‘revenge’, leaving uncertainty for judges and juries.

62
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Which case replaced Jordan as authority on medical negligence rarely breaking the causal chain?

R v Cheshire (1991).

63
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How does the law treat drug dealers who inject versus hand over syringes?

If D injects the victim (Cato), chain unbroken; if victim self-injects (Kennedy), chain broken.

64
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What is required for the unlawful act element in constructive manslaughter per R v Franklin?

The act must itself be a criminal offence, not merely a civil wrong.

65
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In gross negligence manslaughter, whose standard is used to judge breach?

That of a reasonable person with the same skills or expertise as the defendant.

66
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What is the ‘golden thread’ of English criminal law, per Viscount Sankey?

The duty of the prosecution to prove the prisoner’s guilt.

67
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Describe the relationship between actus reus and mens rea when they occur at different times, citing a case.

A continuing act or single transaction can align AR and MR, e.g., Thabo Meli; alternatively, MR preceding AR can suffice (R v Church).

68
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Which statute abolished capital punishment for murder in the UK?

Murder (Abolition of Death Penalty) Act 1965 (contextual knowledge for exams).

69
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What is ‘objective recklessness’ and which leading case introduced it?

Failure to consider an obvious risk apparent to the reasonable person; introduced in MPC v Caldwell (1982).

70
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Under which circumstances can a doctor avoid homicide liability when withdrawing treatment?

If treatment is no longer in the patient’s best interests and withdrawal merely allows natural death, it can be lawful (Airedale NHS Trust v Bland).

71
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Name the five PACE codes dealing with suspect handling, from arrest to interview recording.

C (detention & questioning), D (identification), E (audio recording), F (visual recording), H (terrorism detention).

72
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What two questions summarise causation issues for juries (per lecture summary)?

Did D cause V’s death in fact (‘but for’) and in law (more than minimal, no break in chain)?

73
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Which non-fatal offence is committed by intentionally or recklessly causing another to apprehend immediate unlawful violence?

Assault.

74
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Why can constructive manslaughter be called ‘involuntary’ even though D had mens rea for an offence?

Because D lacked mens rea for causing death; liability is built upon the lesser intentional unlawful act.

75
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What distinguishes manslaughter by gross negligence from civil negligence?

Negligence must be so grossly negligent as to be criminal: exceptional disregard for life and safety.

76
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What is the main practical consequence of succeeding with diminished responsibility or loss of control?

Conviction is reduced from murder to voluntary manslaughter, avoiding the mandatory life sentence.

77
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If a defendant suffers an epileptic seizure and crashes a car, which defence is potentially available?

Non-insane automatism (external cause – seizure).

78
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How can ‘dangerousness’ in unlawful act manslaughter be assessed when the victim is frail but risk appears minor?

Reasonable person is taken to know victim’s general frailty if apparent; risk of ‘some harm’ suffices (Dawson distinguished where risk not obvious).

79
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What statutory maximum penalty applies for summary offences like common assault?

Six months’ imprisonment and/or a fine (unless otherwise provided by statute).

80
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Who decides whether there is sufficient evidence and public interest to prosecute?

The Crown Prosecution Service (following the Full Code Test).

81
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Define ‘mens rea’.

The mental element or guilty mind required for a particular offence.

82
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Which case shows that an abnormality of mental functioning must arise from a recognised medical condition for DR?

R v Byrne (1960).

83
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What doctrine allows multiple elements of actus reus and mens rea to be connected over time?

Continuing act / transaction principle.

84
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When does medical negligence break the chain of causation under the current law?

Only if it is so independent and potent in causing death that D’s contribution is insignificant (Cheshire).