quiz mr for me

The _______ supplies blood to the face.

external carotid artery

In order to acquire an extracranial time-of-flight arterial MRA, a presaturation pulse would be applied in which location to saturate unwanted blood flow?

Superior to slice group, superior to brain stem

A Contrast Enhanced MRA Runoff of the Lower Extremities would require coverage to include the

iliac bifurcation down to and including the dorsalis pedis artery

flow before an area of stenosis is defined as:

laminar flow

The larger and more direct terminal branch of the popliteal artery is the_ which supplies blood to the foot, and has a crucial branch known as the fibular, or peroneal artery

posterior tibial artery

The smaller terminal branch of the popliteal artery, the _ which leads into the dorsalis pedis artery

anterior tibial artery

The major bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the

right and left common iliac arteries

The right common carotid artery does not _

originate directly off the aorta

Increases the _ value will allow more arterial vessels to be visualized

VENC

The hepatic portal vein is a vessel in the abdominal cavity that

drains blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to capillary beds in the liver

TOF (Time-of-Flight) MRA sequences use _ with TR and FA selections to supress signal from stationary tissues, visulaizing flowing blood by flow-related enchancement

T1 gradient echo

PC MRA (phase contrast) sequences use _ that rely on velocity-included phase shifts for vascular signal

T2 gradient echo

The _____ supplies blood to the posterior brain.

vertebral artery

The _____ supplies blood to the anterior brain.

internal carotid artery

An extracranial MRA exam is defined as an

MRA of the carotid and vertebral arteries

An intracranial MRA exam is defined as an

MRA of the Circle of Willis, or Head MRA

The optimal technique to visualize the circle of willis would be

3D TOF

In time-of-flight (TOF) imaging, areas of signal void can be seen on the image due to:
Turbulent flow
Vortex flow
laminar flow

turbulent and vortex flow

The common iliac veins join to form the:

IVC (inferior vena cava)

A 2D TOF MRA sequence would be selected to cover

larger areas of vascular coverage with thicker slices

In order to obtain a time of flight MRA of the IVC a presaturation band would be placed:

superior

To acquire an intracranial arterial blood flow MRA, a presaturation pulse is applied ____ to the slice group in in order to null signal from intracranial venous blood flow

superior

To acquire an intracranial venogram, a MR angiographic sequence would have a presaturation pulse applied in which location?

inferior

All of the following arise from the aorta EXCEPT?
right vertebral artery
left subclavian artery
left common carotid artery
brachiocephalic artery

right vertebral artery

MR angiography uses which kind of pulse sequence?

gradient echo

Which is the most useful technique to evalaute slow flow within a vessel?

phase contrast mra

Blood flow that is initially laminar, then intersects a vessel stenosis or stricture, becoming high velocity central flow and spiral near the walls of the vessel is defined as:

vortex flow

Blood flow within a vessel that is characterized by different velocities that fluctuate randomly is defined as:

Turbulent flow

Blood flow where the direction of flow is spiral is defined as:

spiral flow

Blood flow that is at different but consistent velocities across a vessel is defined as:

laminar flow

_ is defined as an abnormal connection between arteries and veins, usually congenital.

AVM (arterio-venous malformation)

When utilizing time-of-flight (TOF) MRA to evaluate peripheral vascular flow, such as arterial blood flow in the legs, presaturation pulses are:

positioned inferior to the slice group

What is the second branch of the abdominal aorta?

Superior mesenteric artery (SMA)

In order to acquire an intracranial arterial blood flow sequence, a presaturation pulse would be applied in which location?

Superior to slice group

Blood flow velocities are greater:

At the center of a vessel

The MRA technique that relies on velocity induced phase shifts to distinguish between moving and stationary protons is:

phase contrast

Contrast enhanced MRA differs from TOF (time of flight) MRA because:
Image contrast doe not depend on the in flow phenomenon
Image contrast relies upon T1 shortening of blood following contrast injection

Timing the start of the sequence relative to the bolus injection is critical
all of the above

all of the above

When imaging a geriatric patient, while performing a PCA MRA sequence, what imaging parameter might the operator adjust?

VENC

A disadvantage of TOF MRA is high signal in some background tissues. To minimize signal from background tissues, TE should be selected that enable the signals from fat and water to be:

out of phase

To create a projection image in MRA, the technique most commonly used is:

MIP

Phase contrast MRA techniques produce images in which the signal intensity within the vessel is dependent upon the:

Velocity of the flowing blood

The degree of stenosis ___________ with time-of-flight MRA.

May be overestimated

The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid at the level of C5-6.

false (should be C3-C4)

The _ of blood is responsible for the bright blood signal in time of flight MR angiography.

flow

The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid artery at the level of the:

C3-C4 disc space

In order to acquire an extracranial time-of-flight arterial MRA, a presaturation pulse would be applied in which location to saturate unwanted blood flow?

Superior to slice group, superior to brain stem/cerebellum

An aortic arch root aneurysm is located in the:

ascending segment of the thoracic aorta

An extracranial MRA exam is defined as an MRA of the ____________?

carotid arteries

A major advantage of a 2D time of flight over a 3D time of flight sequence is the ability to:

Image larger areas without saturation of flowing blood

Which of the following MR angiography techniques has a scan time short enough to complete an abdominal study in a single breath hold?

Contrast enhanced

In a contrast enhanced MR angiography of the abdominal arteries, the IV gadolinium would enhance in which order?

Celiac, superior mesenteric, renal, inferior mesenteric

A major advantage of a 3D time of flight over a 2D time of flight sequence is the ability to:

visualize smaller vessels

A disease that is characterized by narrowing of the aorta is called an _____________.

aortic coarctation

In time-of-flight (TOF) imaging targeted to the subclavian arteries, the two best imaging planes would be:

axial and sagittal

The first major branch of the abdominal aorta is the _______.

celiac artery

The major bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the:

right and left iliac arteries

The vertebral arteries originate from the ____________.

right and left subclavian artery

The brainstem includes all of the following EXCEPT:
putamen
mid brain
pons
medulla oblongata

putamen

The _ passes through the Sylvian fissure

middle cerebral artery

The mesencephalic duct, aka aqueductus mesencephali, aqueduct of Sylvius or the cerebral aqueduct, contains CSF is within the midbrain and

connects the third ventricle in the diencephalon to the fourth ventricle, which is in between the pons and cerebellum

When performing MRI to rule out brain tumors, the _ weighted images acquired to evaluate the extent of lesion involvement, after injection of gadolinium, are

T1 weighted images

How do the vertebral arteries enter the cranium?

foramen magnum

To best visualize the pituitary gland in MRI, high resolution T1 weighted images in the __________ planes pre and post contrast are optimal.

Thin slice sagittal and coronal (3 mm or less)

If a brain exam is being perfomed and the request is made to rule out globe tumor due to symptoms of diplopia, a protocol with thin cuts through the ____________ should be performed including fat supression pre/post contrast

Orbits/Optic Nerves

____________ is a condition in which part of the cerebellar tonsil is displaced through the foramen magnum.

Chiari Malformation

The hippocampus is located in the medial temporal lobe, and is best seen is what plane?

coronal oblique

If a brain exam is being performed and the request is made to rule out acoustic neuroma, a protocol with thin cuts through the _ should be performed

IAC (VII or VIII cranial nerves)
3mm Axial and Coronal T1 pre/post contrast
heavily T2 weighted 3D Volume for optimal VII and VIII cranial nerve assessment are useful

If a brain exam is being performed and the request is made to evaluate cranial nerves VII and VIII due to the patient's symptoms of tinnitus, a protocol with thin cuts through the ____________ should be performed.

IAC

A depression in the base of the skull where the pituitary gland is located is called the ___________.

Sella turcica

How many cranial nerves are there?

12

When performing an MRI to confirm a suspected pituitary microadenoma, contrast is injected and imaging is performed:

Rapidly because lesions appear as low signal intensity compared to the enhanced pituitary gland

The _____________ imaging plane would be the most optimal slice orientation for evaluation of Arnold Chiari Malformation and its inferior cerebellar tonsillar herniation.

sagittal

if the third ventricle is dilated, but the fourth ventricle is not, there would then be pathology associated with:

aqueduct of sylvius

_______ sequences are performed to suppress CSF (cerebro-spinal fluid) and aid in the detection of demyelination.

FLAIR

Which fissure divides the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobes?

sylvian fissure

the right and left optic nerve joint at the

optic chiasm

MRI findings of a low volume corpus callosum and increased white matter lesions can be indicative of a diagnosis of:

multiple sclerosis aka MS

When imaging a hemorrhagic infarct in the brain, which pulse sequence would demonstrate the magnetic susceptibility effects better?

gradient echo

When positioning a patient for a brain MRI, the centering should be placed at what anatomical landmark?

Nasion

The stalk of the pituitary gland is also known as the:

Infundibulum/pituitary stalk

Which dural venous sinuses drain from the confluence of sinuses (by the internal occipital protuberance) to the mastoid portion of the temporal?

transverse sinuses

On a T2 weighted image, CSF appears bright because it has a __________ relaxation time.

Long T2

Which area of the brain is typically affected in patients with a history of epilepsy?

temporal lobe and/or hippocampus

In the TMJ’s, the articular disc lies between what two anatomical structures?

Mandibular fossa and mandibular condyle

The medial and lateral rectus muscles are located in the:

eyes

Which structure lies adjacent to the head of the caudate nucleus?

anterior horn of the lateral ventricle

Which cranial nerve is responsible for Bell's Palsy?

7th Cranial nerve VII-the facial nerve

The __________________ runs the length of the falx cerebri.

superior sagittal sinus

What would be the most useful sequence for evaluation of an acute stroke?

DWI

A FLAIR sequence with a long TI is utilized to:

null the signal from CSF

If a brain exam is being perfomed and the request is made to rule out microadenoma due to elevated prolactin levels, a protocol with thin cuts through the ____________ should be performed.

Pituitary gland

To accurately depict the VII and VIII cranial nerves, the patient would centered at the level of the:

external auditory meatus

The dural venous sinuses that drain into the internal jugular vein are the:

sigmoid sinus

A Wilms' tumor can be found:

in a pediatric kidney

The major bifurcation of the abdominal aorta is the

right and left common iliac arteries

The anterior tibial artery leads into the

dorsalis pedis artery

The branches of the abdominal aorta, from proximal (superior) to distal are: Celiac, superior mesenteric, renal, and

inferior mesenteric arteries

_ sequence used in the evaluation of bowel pathology such as Crohn’s disease or inflammatory bowel disease.

MR Enterography

In/Out of Phase Sequences evaluate for_ and other conditions with increased lipid content

fatty liver, adrenal adenoma

A prescription requesting an MRI to evaluate an islet cell tumor would indicate a study of the ________?

pancreas