Fundamentals of Toxicology, Poisoning, and Chelation

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These flashcards cover key definitions, classifications, mechanisms, clinical features, and treatments related to toxicology, including herbicides, insecticides, heavy metals, antidotes, chelating agents, and principles of poisoning management.

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53 Terms

1
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What does the field of toxicology study?

The study of poisons and their effects.

2
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Who is a toxicologist?

A person who studies poisons.

3
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In toxicology terminology, how is a hazard defined?

The likelihood an event will occur based on a product’s packaging, formulation, or accessibility.

4
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How is risk defined in toxicology?

The probability that an event will occur based on patient vulnerability.

5
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What is the difference between a toxic substance and a poison?

There is no difference—both terms denote substances that can cause harm.

6
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What are the three major types of antidotes?

Chemical, mechanical, and physiologic antidotes.

7
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Give an example of a chemical antidote and its mechanism.

Chelators such as EDTA that react with heavy metals to form harmless complexes.

8
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Which mechanical antidote is commonly used to prevent absorption of poisons?

Activated charcoal.

9
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Which physiologic antidote is used for organophosphate poisoning?

Atropine.

10
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What ingredients make up the traditional 'universal antidote'?

Two parts activated charcoal, one part magnesium oxide, and one part tannic acid.

11
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Occupational toxicology in the United States is primarily regulated under what act?

The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970.

12
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Which federal agency oversees environmental toxicology issues in the U.S.?

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

13
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What is the primary danger of acute dermal exposure to herbicides?

It is usually limited unless the herbicide is not removed quickly, allowing absorption.

14
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Which herbicide is relatively nontoxic but can cause neurotoxicity and muscle weakness if ingested?

2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D).

15
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What supportive therapy can enhance excretion of 2,4-D in serious poisoning?

Alkaline diuresis or haemodialysis.

16
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Which herbicide causes bloody vomiting followed by pulmonary edema and multi-organ damage when ingested?

Paraquat.

17
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What is the first-line treatment for paraquat ingestion?

Administration of activated charcoal and gut decontamination.

18
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Name one serious complication of diquat poisoning.

Acute renal failure (others include GI ulceration and hypovolemic shock).

19
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Which herbicide marketed as Roundup is most widely used globally?

Glyphosate.

20
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What is a key treatment option when glyphosate poisoning leads to renal failure?

Haemodialysis.

21
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What is the mechanism of organophosphate insecticides?

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase leading to excess acetylcholine and neurotoxicity.

22
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Which two drugs form the standard antidotal therapy for organophosphate poisoning?

Atropine and pralidoxime.

23
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Why is pralidoxime generally not used in carbamate poisoning?

Because acetylcholinesterase reactivates spontaneously after carbamate exposure.

24
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What ion channel do organochlorine insecticides keep open, causing continuous nerve firing?

Sodium channels.

25
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Which pesticide class includes naturally occurring pyrethrins and synthetic pyrethroids?

Pesticides derived from Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium.

26
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List two common symptoms of pyrethrin or pyrethroid toxicity.

Skin/eye irritation and CNS excitation with possible convulsions.

27
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What naturally occurring pesticide has relatively low human toxicity but can irritate the skin, eyes, and GI tract?

Rotenone.

28
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State four desirable properties of an ideal chelating agent.

High metal affinity, water solubility, tissue penetration, and low inherent toxicity (others include resistance to metabolism and easy excretion).

29
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On what three factors does the effectiveness of a chelator depend?

Affinity for the metal, distribution to where the metal is stored, and ability to mobilize the metal for excretion.

30
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Which chelating agent is oily, has a strong odor, and is effective for acute arsenic and mercury poisoning?

Dimercaprol (BAL).

31
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Name two cardiovascular adverse effects associated with dimercaprol.

Hypertension and tachycardia.

32
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Which oral chelator is preferred for elevated blood lead levels in children?

Succimer (DMSA).

33
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What is the main adverse effect that may require discontinuation of succimer?

Skin rashes.

34
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Which chelator is administered IV to treat lead poisoning and has potential nephrotoxicity?

EDTA (Edetate calcium disodium).

35
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What heavy-metal disorder is penicillamine primarily used to treat?

Wilson’s disease (hepato-lenticular degeneration) due to copper overload.

36
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Which chelator is derived from Streptomyces pilosus and is used for acute iron poisoning?

Deferoxamine.

37
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Name one serious pulmonary complication associated with prolonged deferoxamine infusion.

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

38
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Which orally active tridentate chelator is approved for chronic iron overload in transfusion-dependent patients?

Deferasirox.

39
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What two radioactive or toxic elements does Prussian blue effectively chelate in the gut?

Radioactive cesium-137 and thallium.

40
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Why are children more susceptible to lead poisoning than adults?

They absorb a higher proportion of ingested lead through the GI tract.

41
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List three common chronic symptoms of lead intoxication.

Anemia, skeletal muscle weakness, and lead palsy (wrist/foot drop).

42
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Which chelators are commonly used in management of chronic lead toxicity?

Succimer or EDTA.

43
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What distinctive odor on the breath is associated with acute arsenic exposure?

A garlic-like odor.

44
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Which dermatologic finding—white transverse nail bands—is characteristic of chronic arsenic poisoning?

Mee’s lines.

45
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What is the preferred biological sample for diagnosing acute arsenic exposure?

Urine, with levels >200 µg/L considered abnormal.

46
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Elemental mercury vapor is primarily absorbed through which route?

Inhalation (about 80% is absorbed through the lungs).

47
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Name two hallmark neurological symptoms of organic (methyl) mercury poisoning.

Ataxia and visual disturbances (others include hearing loss and tremors).

48
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Which natural substances are sometimes promoted as mild chelators for heavy metals?

Chlorella, garlic, and cilantro.

49
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What is the first priority (the ABC’s) in initial management of any poisoned patient?

Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.

50
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Which gut decontamination technique involves giving a plant-derived emetic that contains emetine and cephaline?

Administration of Syrup of Ipecac.

51
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Name two contraindications for giving Syrup of Ipecac.

Ingestion of corrosives or when the patient lacks an intact airway reflex (others: low viscosity hydrocarbons, seizures, coma).

52
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Which adsorbent is the cornerstone of gut decontamination for many poisons?

Activated charcoal.

53
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Why are cathartics such as sorbitol used in poisoning management?

To promote bowel evacuation and hasten removal of the toxin-charcoal complex.