Parasitology 4th SE ai

Quality assurance in the parasitology laboratory refers to: a. Elimination of all laboratory errors b. Continuous improvement in reliability, efficiency, and utilization of laboratory services c. Exclusive use of automated diagnostic systems d. Replacement of microscopy with molecular techniques

b. Continuous improvement in reliability, efficiency, and utilization of laboratory services

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Quality Management System (QMS)? a. Standard operating procedures b. Documentation c. External quality assessment d. Patient clinical history

d. Patient clinical history

Internal Quality Control (IQC) is best described as: a. Evaluation by external agencies b. Procedures used by laboratory personnel to assess their own work c. National monitoring of laboratories d. Government licensing requirement

b. Procedures used by laboratory personnel to assess their own work

External Quality Assessment (EQA) primarily functions as: a. Daily monitoring of reagents b. Internal validation of SOPs c. Periodic evaluation by an outside agency d. Replacement for IQC

c. Periodic evaluation by an outside agency

Which of the following is an example of EQA? a. Equipment calibration b. Staff training c. Proficiency testing d. Specimen labeling

c. Proficiency testing

The gold standard for diagnosis of most parasitic infections is: a. PCR b. Serology c. Microscopy d. Culture

c. Microscopy

Which stage of laboratory testing includes specimen collection and handling? a. Analytical b. Post-analytical c. Pre-analytical d. Interpretative

c. Pre-analytical

Which stage involves interpretation and reporting of results? a. Pre-analytical b. Analytical c. Post-analytical d. Diagnostic

c. Post-analytical

Diagnosis of neglected parasitic diseases primarily relies on: a. Serologic assays b. Direct visualization of parasites c. Molecular testing only d. Clinical signs alone

b. Direct visualization of parasites

Which of the following reduces diagnostic accuracy in parasitology laboratories? a. Adequate training b. Functional equipment c. Lack of quality assurance d. Proper SOP implementation

c. Lack of quality assurance

Direct fecal smear (DFS) is best used for: a. Quantitative egg count b. Detection of motile trophozoites c. Screening for malaria d. Identification of larvae only

b. Detection of motile trophozoites

Kato-Katz technique is primarily used for: a. Detection of protozoa b. Semi-quantitative egg count c. Blood parasite identification d. Urine examination

b. Semi-quantitative egg count

Formalin-ether concentration technique (FECT) is most useful for: a. Rapid diagnosis b. Low parasite burden detection c. Motility assessment d. Blood parasites

b. Low parasite burden detection

Glycerine is used in which technique? a. DFS b. FECT c. Kato-Katz d. PCR

c. Kato-Katz

Which technique is recommended for screening food handlers? a. PCR b. DFS c. Kato-Katz d. Serology

b. DFS

Egg count is used to determine: a. Prevalence b. Incidence c. Infection intensity d. Mortality rate

c. Infection intensity

Prevalence refers to: a. New cases over time b. Total infected proportion c. Severity of infection d. Parasite burden

b. Total infected proportion

Incidence is defined as: a. Existing cases b. Egg count c. New cases over time d. Mortality rate

c. New cases over time

The combination of DFS and Kato-thick smear improves: a. Cost b. Specificity c. Sensitivity d. Turnaround time

c. Sensitivity

Which technique is best for epidemiologic investigations? a. DFS only b. PCR c. Combination techniques d. Serology only

c. Combination techniques

The drug of choice for most intestinal nematodes is: a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole or Mebendazole c. Metronidazole d. Amphotericin B

b. Albendazole or Mebendazole

Enterobius vermicularis is best diagnosed using: a. Stool exam b. Blood smear c. Scotch tape test d. Urine exam

c. Scotch tape test

Which nematode causes pruritus ani? a. Ascaris b. Hookworm c. Enterobius d. Trichuris

c. Enterobius

Which parasite is associated with microcytic anemia? a. Ascaris b. Trichuris c. Hookworm d. Strongyloides

c. Hookworm

Trichuris infection is commonly associated with: a. Pulmonary symptoms b. Rectal prolapse c. Jaundice d. Neurologic deficits

b. Rectal prolapse

Tissue nematodes are primarily managed with: a. Antibiotics b. Supportive care and corticosteroids c. Antivirals d. Chemotherapy

b. Supportive care and corticosteroids

Elephantiasis is caused by: a. Ascaris b. Trichuris c. Wuchereria d. Giardia

c. Wuchereria

Drug of choice for most trematodes is: a. Albendazole b. Metronidazole c. Praziquantel d. Ivermectin

c. Praziquantel

Exception to praziquantel use in trematodes: a. Blood fluke b. Lung fluke c. Intestinal fluke d. Liver fluke

d. Liver fluke

Drug of choice for liver flukes: a. Albendazole b. Metronidazole c. Triclabendazole d. Praziquantel

c. Triclabendazole

Metronidazole is used for: a. Helminths b. Protozoa c. Viruses d. Fungi

b. Protozoa

Diloxanide is used for: a. Severe infection b. Blood parasites c. Asymptomatic cyst passers d. Tissue nematodes

c. Asymptomatic cyst passers

Amphotericin B is used for: a. Intestinal helminths b. Free-living amoebae c. Trematodes d. Cestodes

b. Free-living amoebae

Co-trimoxazole is used for: a. Nematodes b. Trematodes c. Coccidians d. Cestodes

c. Coccidians

Which protozoan can cross the placenta? a. Giardia b. Toxoplasma c. Entamoeba d. Balantidium

b. Toxoplasma

Most fatal protozoan infection: a. Giardia b. Entamoeba c. Toxoplasma d. Balantidium

c. Toxoplasma

Chloroquine is used for: a. Resistant malaria b. Sensitive malaria c. Protozoa d. Cestodes

b. Sensitive malaria

ACTs are used for: a. Mild infection b. Resistant malaria c. Helminths d. Fungi

b. Resistant malaria

Drug contraindicated in pregnancy (malaria): a. Chloroquine b. Mefloquine c. Doxycycline d. Artesunate

c. Doxycycline

Primaquine is used for: a. Blood stage b. Liver stage c. Egg stage d. Larval stage

b. Liver stage

Insects have: a. 2 body regions b. 3 pairs of legs c. 4 pairs of legs d. No antennae

b. 3 pairs of legs

Arachnids are characterized by: a. Wings b. Antennae c. 4 pairs of legs d. Segmented abdomen

c. 4 pairs of legs

Which is NOT an insect? a. Mosquito b. Tick c. Flea d. Louse

b. Tick

Hematophagous organisms: a. Feed on tissue b. Feed on blood c. Feed on plants d. Feed on debris

b. Feed on blood

Myiasis refers to: a. Worm infection b. Protozoan infection c. Fly larval infestation d. Viral infection

c. Fly larval infestation

Scabies is caused by: a. Tick b. Louse c. Mite d. Flea

c. Mite

Nocturnal pruritus is characteristic of: a. Malaria b. Scabies c. Amoebiasis d. Filariasis

b. Scabies

Bed bugs are: a. Major vectors b. Minor vectors c. Non-vectors nuisance pests d. Blood parasites

c. Non-vectors nuisance pests

Delusory parasitosis is: a. Infection b. Allergy c. Psychological condition d. Genetic disorder

c. Psychological condition

Transmission of Pthirus pubis is mainly: a. Airborne b. Waterborne c. Sexual contact d. Foodborne

c. Sexual contact

Which of the following best describes a vector in parasitology? a. An organism that causes disease b. An organism that transmits pathogens c. A parasite host d. A diagnostic tool

b. An organism that transmits pathogens

Mechanical transmission of parasites refers to: a. Parasite development in vector b. Passive transfer without development c. Sexual reproduction in host d. Direct human-to-human spread

b. Passive transfer without development

Biological transmission involves: a. No parasite development b. Physical transport only c. Development or multiplication of parasite in vector d. Airborne spread

c. Development or multiplication of parasite in vector

Which of the following arthropods is a biological vector? a. Housefly b. Mosquito c. Cockroach d. Ant

b. Mosquito

Which arthropod is associated with typhus transmission? a. Tick b. Mosquito c. Flea d. Louse

d. Louse

Which of the following parasites is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated water? a. Hookworm b. Giardia lamblia c. Wuchereria bancrofti d. Enterobius vermicularis

b. Giardia lamblia

Which parasite enters the body through skin penetration? a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Taenia solium c. Hookworm d. Entamoeba histolytica

c. Hookworm

Which parasite is transmitted through ingestion of cysts? a. Hookworm b. Giardia c. Strongyloides d. Wuchereria

b. Giardia

Which parasite causes autoinfection? a. Ascaris b. Trichuris c. Strongyloides d. Taenia

c. Strongyloides

Which parasite is associated with larva currens? a. Ascaris b. Hookworm c. Strongyloides d. Trichuris

c. Strongyloides

Which parasite causes intestinal obstruction? a. Giardia b. Ascaris c. Hookworm d. Trichuris

b. Ascaris

Which parasite is associated with night blindness due to vitamin deficiency? a. Giardia b. Ascaris c. Trichuris d. Hookworm

b. Ascaris

Which parasite causes dysentery with flask-shaped ulcers? a. Giardia b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Balantidium coli d. Cryptosporidium

b. Entamoeba histolytica

Which parasite is the only ciliated protozoan infecting humans? a. Giardia b. Entamoeba c. Balantidium coli d. Toxoplasma

c. Balantidium coli

Which parasite is associated with malabsorption syndrome? a. Giardia b. Ascaris c. Trichuris d. Taenia

a. Giardia

Which parasite causes hydatid cyst formation? a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium c. Echinococcus granulosus d. Diphyllobothrium latum

c. Echinococcus granulosus

Which parasite causes neurocysticercosis? a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium c. Echinococcus d. Hymenolepis

b. Taenia solium

Which parasite is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency? a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium c. Diphyllobothrium latum d. Hymenolepis nana

c. Diphyllobothrium latum

Which parasite is capable of completing its life cycle in one host? a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium c. Hymenolepis nana d. Echinococcus

c. Hymenolepis nana

Which parasite is associated with beef consumption? a. Taenia solium b. Taenia saginata c. Diphyllobothrium d. Echinococcus

b. Taenia saginata

Which parasite is associated with pork consumption? a. Taenia saginata b. Taenia solium c. Diphyllobothrium d. Hymenolepis

b. Taenia solium

Which parasite causes swimmer’s itch? a. Schistosoma b. Fasciola c. Clonorchis d. Paragonimus

a. Schistosoma

Which trematode infects the lungs? a. Fasciola b. Clonorchis c. Paragonimus d. Schistosoma

c. Paragonimus

Which trematode infects the liver? a. Paragonimus b. Fasciola hepatica c. Schistosoma d. Enterobius

b. Fasciola hepatica

Which parasite is associated with portal hypertension? a. Schistosoma b. Fasciola c. Paragonimus d. Taenia

a. Schistosoma

Which stage of malaria infects RBCs? a. Sporozoite b. Merozoite c. Gametocyte d. Ookinete

b. Merozoite

Which stage of malaria infects the liver? a. Sporozoite b. Merozoite c. Gametocyte d. Schizont

a. Sporozoite

Which Plasmodium species causes relapsing malaria? a. falciparum b. malariae c. vivax d. knowlesi

c. vivax

Which Plasmodium species causes severe malaria? a. vivax b. ovale c. malariae d. falciparum

d. falciparum

Which Plasmodium species has a quartan fever pattern? a. falciparum b. vivax c. ovale d. malariae

d. malariae

Which parasite causes kala-azar? a. Trypanosoma b. Leishmania donovani c. Giardia d. Entamoeba

b. Leishmania donovani

Which parasite causes sleeping sickness? a. Leishmania b. Trypanosoma brucei c. Giardia d. Toxoplasma

b. Trypanosoma brucei

Which vector transmits Trypanosoma brucei? a. Mosquito b. Sandfly c. Tsetse fly d. Tick

c. Tsetse fly

Which vector transmits Leishmania? a. Mosquito b. Sandfly c. Tsetse fly d. Flea

b. Sandfly

Which parasite is associated with congenital infection? a. Giardia b. Toxoplasma c. Entamoeba d. Ascaris

b. Toxoplasma

Which parasite causes chorioretinitis? a. Giardia b. Entamoeba c. Toxoplasma d. Ascaris

c. Toxoplasma

Which parasite is commonly transmitted through undercooked meat? a. Giardia b. Toxoplasma c. Entamoeba d. Hookworm

b. Toxoplasma

Which parasite causes profuse watery diarrhea in immunocompromised patients? a. Giardia b. Entamoeba c. Cryptosporidium d. Ascaris

c. Cryptosporidium

Which parasite is acid-fast on staining? a. Giardia b. Entamoeba c. Cryptosporidium d. Balantidium

c. Cryptosporidium

Which parasite causes diarrhea in AIDS patients? a. Giardia b. Entamoeba c. Cryptosporidium d. Ascaris

c. Cryptosporidium

Which control measure reduces soil-transmitted helminth infections? a. Antibiotics b. Vaccination c. Sanitation and hygiene d. Radiation

c. Sanitation and hygiene

Mass drug administration (MDA) aims to: a. Cure individuals only b. Reduce transmission in populations c. Eliminate vectors d. Improve diagnostics

b. Reduce transmission in populations

Which population is commonly targeted for deworming programs? a. Elderly b. Adults only c. School-aged children d. Pregnant women only

c. School-aged children

Which factor increases parasitic infection risk? a. Clean water b. Proper hygiene c. Poor sanitation d. Vaccination

c. Poor sanitation

Which is the most effective prevention for foodborne parasites? a. Vaccination b. Cooking food properly c. Antibiotics d. Isolation

b. Cooking food properly

Which is the primary mode of transmission of soil-transmitted helminths? a. Airborne b. Skin contact c. Fecal-oral route d. Vector-borne

c. Fecal-oral route

Which is a major public health strategy against parasitic infections? a. Surgery b. Chemotherapy c. Sanitation improvement d. Radiation

c. Sanitation improvement

Which is a key indicator used in epidemiology of parasitic infections? a. Blood pressure b. Egg count c. Heart rate d. Temperature

b. Egg count

Which is the goal of parasite control programs? a. Eliminate all parasites b. Reduce morbidity and transmission c. Increase diagnosis only d. Replace treatment

b. Reduce morbidity and transmission

Which intervention reduces vector-borne parasitic diseases? a. Antibiotics b. Bed nets and vector control c. Surgery d. Vaccination only

b. Bed nets and vector control /