ROC 1 to 2 Conventional (2026)

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Last updated 10:04 AM on 7/31/26
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209 Terms

1
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True or false? With regards to BER performance, amplifier and attenuator don't need to be tested as they won't affect overall signal quality.

False

2
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True or false? Amplifier and attenuator testing must be conducted to see how they affect a communication system's BER performance and overall signal quality.

True

3
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True or false? CRC errors are exclusively caused by software bugs.

False

4
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True or false? CRC errors can be caused by noise and interference, faulty hardware, collisions, and software bugs.

True

5
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True or false? In DAA networks, ethernet test equipment is used to verify link integrity and measure bandwidth, latency, jitter, and packet loss.

True

6
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True or false? A BERT is used to assess transmission system performance by generating test data, transmitting it, and analyzing the output for errors.

True

7
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True or false? Technicians use measurements to ensure the ethernet backhaul is stable and can handle the high data demands of distributed nodes.

True

8
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True or false? Ethernet protocol analyzers are used exclusively in data centers.

False

9
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True or false? A jitter test in a network service tester evaluates the accuracy of ethernet frames.

False

10
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True or false? Network service testers are primarily used to test optical signal strength at fiber nodes.

False

11
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True or false? Network service testers perform SLA testing, including measuring throughput, latency, jitter, and frame loss.

True

12
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True or false? The spine layer consists of high-capacity core switches acting as the network backbone.

True

13
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True or false? RFC 2544 testing measures the maximum rate at which data can be transmitted over a network connection.

False

14
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True or false? Bandwidth/throughput testing measures the maximum rate at which data can be transmitted over a network connection.

True

15
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True or false? A network service tester measures cable length and thickness.

False

16
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True or false? Y.1564 (EtherSAM) tests evaluate Ethernet service performance under multiple traffic streams and service configurations.

True

17
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True or false? Ethernet testing in a DAA network is done over fiber-optic cables using a SFP module.

True

18
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True or false? Ethernet testing in a DAA network uses copper cables with ethernet adapters.

False

19
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True or false? Ethernet testing in a DAA network is done through wireless connections using a mobile tester.

False

20
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Where is a network service tester used?

Placed at strategic points in a network where subscriber data merges or transitions from local access networks to more extensive metropolitan networks or main data routes.

21
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Where is a BERT used?

At the points where the optical network connects to the ethernet network, and in the core network or at strategic points where long-distance fiber links transition into ethernet links for data routing and processing.

22
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Where is an ethernet protocol analyzer used?

In the field, near the RPDs, and in NOCs or data centers.

23
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True or false? Fiber inspection scopes are used to measure the strength of light signals in optical fibers.

False

24
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True or false? Fiber inspection scopes are used to examine the endface of fiber-optic connectors, ensuring that the connections are clean and free of defects.

True

25
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True or false? An OTDR can measure the return loss of an optical fiber.

True

26
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True or false? Smart OTDRs are primarily designed for use by highly experienced technicians due to their complex interfaces.

False

27
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True or false? Smart OTDRs use automated setup, guided test procedures, and intuitive data interpretation, making them accessible even for technicians with less experience.

True

28
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True or false? Optical fiber test equipment is used to measure, analyze, and troubleshoot the performance of optical fiber networks.

True

29
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What does a PMD analyzer do?

Analyzes distortion that occurs when different polarization modes of light travel at different speeds through a fiber, causing signal degradation, especially in high-speed networks.

30
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What does a CD analyzer do?

Measures how different light wavelengths spread over a distance.

31
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What does an optical channel checker do?

Scans various channels in a fiber-optic cable and measures parameters such as wavelength, power levels, and SNR.

32
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What equipment uses a light source and tests the fiber's signal loss and quality?

OPM

33
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True or false? MAP messages assign specific mini-slots to modems to coordinate data and avoid upstream channel collisions.

True

34
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True or false? OSAs are used for DWDM testing to measure channel power, SNR, and wavelength accuracy.

True

35
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True or false? The role of the hub in DAA networks has expanded, including more RF infrastructure and combined network management functions.

False

36
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True or false? In a DAA network, RF infrastructure has been replaced with digital processing, remote management, and virtualized network functions, so the role of the hub has evolved to follow suit.

True

37
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True or false? Return path testing in an R-PHY network measures the physical condition of connectors.

False

38
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True or false? Testing CPE ensures devices can receive and decode signals properly and receive firmware updates remotely.

True

39
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True or false? Automated test systems (ATS) are used to test field CPE remotely.

True

40
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True or false? Fiber is generally used in the "last mile" to deliver services directly to homes.

False

41
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Which of the following tests is used to ensure signal quality in a RPD?

MER and BER

42
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What spectrum analyzer function can be used to capture consistent, low-amplitude level signals that interfere with the short-duration return path channels?

Min Hold

43
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What spectrum analyzer function can be left on for extended periods of time to capture transient signals and ingress, including intermittent signals that can be difficult to identify?

Max Hold

44
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How is the spectrum analyzer video bandwidth (VBW) filter used?

To reduce the noise displayed by the spectrum analyzer to view low amplitude signals more clearly without changing measurement results

45
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In combination with the sweep time, which spectrum analyzer setting determines how well signals will be defined and displayed on the spectrum analyzer's screen?

The resolution bandwidth (RBW) setting

46
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Which spectrum analyzer setting adjusts the amount of time the analyzer circuitry takes to sample the input signal or channel and then trace the amplitude and signature on the analyzer's display?

The sweep setting

47
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The amplitude, or vertical deflection on the spectrum analyzer display, is adjusted by what instrument settings?

The RF input attenuator and intermediate frequency (IF) gain

48
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The detail of a displayed signal can be viewed and modified by adjusting the frequency range that the spectrum analyzer is sweeping via which setting?

Span

49
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What does the time-gated switch function on a spectrum analyzer enable?

In-service measurements of noise, beats, and ingress without disrupting service

50
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In a swept-tuned spectrum analyzer, which element gives the instrument its "swept-tuned" characteristic?

An internal sweep generator

51
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What is the benefit of spectrum analyzers capable of automated measurements specifically for broadband cable networks?

Technicians with only basic instructions can obtain accurate measurements

52
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What do the terms in Ohm's law stand for?

E = voltage drop

I = current

R = resistance

53
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For the first circuit in a cascade, how is the current calculated?

By multiplying the current by the total number of amplifiers in the cascade

54
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How is the voltage into the second amplifier in a cascade calculated?

By using Ohm's law to calculate the voltage drop of the first circuit in the cascade, subtracting that from the power supply voltage to get the voltage into the first amplifier, using Ohm's law again to get the voltage drop for the second amplifier, then subtracting that number from the voltage going into the first amplifier

55
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What is a priority in any standby power supply maintenance program?

Battery care

56
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Where is a clamp-on ammeter attached to measure the output current from a network power supply?

Clamped around the connector attached to the lug that tightens down on the coaxial cable connector pin

57
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What is the advantage for supplying AC to multiple amplifiers from one network power supply?

Allows the designer to place amplifiers without concern about access to electrical utility power

58
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What inserts AC into the network with a direct connection to an amplifier rather than using a power inserter?

The amplifier AC circuitry

59
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In a power inserter with 3 filtering networks, what is the purpose of the high-pass filter?

To prevent the 60 Hz AC from passing between the 2 RF/AC ports

60
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In a standby network power supply, what comes online to convert the battery voltage to AC, which then goes to the ferroresonant transformer?

The battery-powered inverter

61
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Which part of a ferroresonant transformer regulates the load on the secondary winding?

The magnetic shunt

62
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How does surge protection at the input and output of a ferroresonant power supply defend against voltage surges?

By passing voltage surges (within the surge rating) to ground without damage

63
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What advantage is realized by increasing the voltage in a broadband cable network from 60 to 90 volts?

Operating with 50% more voltage reduces the voltage drop and current drawn in the network for more efficient power utilization

64
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In modular cable modem termination system (M-CMTS) architecture, what automaticaly compensates for cable length and ensures that the M-CMTS clients have the same sense of time and frequency?

The DOCSIS Timing Interface (DTI) server

65
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What is defined in DOCSIS 3.1 that strengthens the security of cable modem authorization and secures software download features?

A new certificate public key infrastructure (PKI)

66
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The DOCSIS MAC and Upper Layer Protocols Interface (MULPI) specification extends through which layers of the OSI reference model?

Layers 2 through 7

67
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Because they use different transmission and coding schemes, the DOCSIS 3.1 PHY layer is incompatible with the PHY layer of previous DOCSIS versions. How does DOCSIS 3.1 comply with the requirement of compatibility with previous DOCSIS versions?

DOCSIS 3.1 has two PHY layers, one for previous versions and one for 3.1. Both layers can operate simultaneously or individually

68
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What are the responsibilities of the PHY layer in the OSI reference model and DOCSIS?

Transmission stream of data bits

69
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In the DOCSIS architecture, what performs the back office tasks that provision, configure, and manage cable modem operations?

The Operational Support Systems (OSS)

70
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What was the motivation for the conception of the converged cable access platform (CCAP)?

To combine digital television (DTV) and DOCSIS operations from a common unified platform

71
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Under equal network conditions, what advantage does low-density parity check (LDPC) forward error correction (FEC) coding have over Reed-Solomon (RS) coding?

LDPC is able to correct errors at orders of modulation that are higher than RS coding can

72
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What elements of a hybrid fiber/coax (HFC) network are most likely to cause a service outage because of component failure or loss of power?

Amplifiers

73
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What over-the-top (OTT) delivered content could cause the current broadband network data rates to become inadequate?

Ultra-high definition TV (UHDTV) content

74
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Which of the following statements describes creative problem-solving?

Thinking outside of the box and looking at problems from a fresh perspective

75
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By taking control of the expectations you have, you are...?

More likely to improve your motivation and be a better problem solver

76
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Under equal network conditions, what advantage does low-density parity-check (LDPC) forward error correction (FEC) coding have over Reed-Solomon (RS) coding?

77
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What should you do to break the habit of a negative self-talk cycle?

Tell yourself "not now" and move onto a positive thought whenever negative ones occur

78
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You are at a customer's home, and you believe you have solved the problem. When you check to ensure the resolution did not introduce any new problems, which step are you using from the six-step troubleshooting process?

Verify the solution

79
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Why should you take the time to take notes and accurately record data at each job location?

Notes and recorded data are tools that can help you accurately remember events at a site that can help you determine a plan of action or evaluate the decisions you made

80
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You are at a customer's home, and you are asking them whether the problem is intermittent or constant. Which step are you using from the six-step troubleshooting process?

Identify the problem

81
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It is essential to pay attention to warning signs of stress overload. Poor attitude is one of the behaviors that may indicate you are overstressed. What are the symptoms of poor attitude behavior?

A significant change in attitude with a noticeable movement toward negative, hostile, cynical, or paranoid thoughts

82
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What does the attribute of being "active" as a critical thinker mean?

You observe and take notes relevant to the issue

83
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Which best describes stereotyped thinking?

Presuming that all members of a group have certain characteristics

84
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What technique can be useful in helping others understand your emotional state and in providing them with direction around how to help you restore balance?

Feel, Felt, Found technique

85
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Which of the following is recommended as a best practice for preventing future leakage and ingress?

Monitoring leakage for both VHF and UHF bands

86
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Suppose cable technicians do not have access to the latest commercial UHF test equipment. What can be used as a short-term solution to confirm if QAM signals leak from the older cable system?

A spectrum analyzer, preamplifier, and a high-gain UHF antenna

87
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When signal leakage occurs in the 698-806 MHz frequency spectrum, who should the cellular carrier contact?

Local cable system personnel

88
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Where does most of the leakage in the UHF band originate?

From the hardline cable plant

89
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What is the relationship between VHF and UHF leakage and ingress?

There is little to no relationship between VHF and UHF leakage and ingress

90
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The deployment of ______________ for use as a public safety communications technology will significantly increase the importance of controlling and reducing leakage and ingress issues.

700 MHz LTE

91
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Per the FCC, acceptable leakage limits for a maximum acceptable field strength of 15μV/m at 30m is for which frequencies?

Above 216 MHz

92
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What is the process for checking for ingress at a drop splitter at the customer premises?

Inspect the splitter and confirm that all of the splitter's F-connectors are properly wrench-tightened by using a 7/16in torque wrench

93
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Which is a common source of OTA ingress in lower frequencies?

Shortwave radio

94
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Digital artifacts can be caused by impulse noise. What is it?

Electromagnetic signal interference produced by power-line transients, motor arcing, household appliances, or electrical systems without shielded wiring

95
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Which active RF device has one RF input with several RF output ports, allowing it to split and amplify the RF signal for distribution across multiple coaxial cables?

Multiple output amplifier

96
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What cable primarily aims to transport signals from the optical node or the headend to different parts of the network without serving individual homes or customers along the way?

.875" trunk cable

97
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What connects two adjacent poles to provide additional stability and support?

Pole-to-pole guy

98
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A plant's roots transport water and nutrients from underground to the leaves and stems above ground and vice versa to supply the plant with its necessities. What comparison could be made between a broadband system and a plant?

A broadband system transports data through and between its aerial and underground plants to supply its customers with necessary services

99
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What is the main focus of return path testing in an R-PHY network?

Verifying noise-free upstream signals

100
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What does a jitter test evaluate in a network service tester?

The variation in latency over time