MT 37 (LEC): GRAM-POSITIVE COCCI 2

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182 Terms

1
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Fill in the blank: MRSA is resistant to antibiotics such as ________, ______, and ______.

methicillin, nafcillin, and oxacillin

2
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True or False: MRSA can be acquired through nasal secretions, prolonged hospital stay, and broad-spectrum antibiotic use.

True.

3
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Three (3) types Of METHICILLIN-RESISTANT STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS (MRSA)

HA-MRSA, CA-MRSA, HACO-MRSA

4
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  • MRSA acquired during dialysis, indwelling devices (catheter), long term hospitalization

Healthcare-associated MRSA (HA-MRSA)

5
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  • MRSA that is common in athletes, children, inmates, recipients of tattoo

Community-associated MRSA (CA-MRSA)

6
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  • MRSA acquired in hospitals but symptoms only occur discharge and the patient goes home

Hospital-associated Community Onset MRSA (HACO-MRSA)

7
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Identify the gene that encodes the altered penicillin-binding protein PBP2a in MRSA.

mecA gene

8
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How does the mecA gene protect S. Aureus from penicillin?

inhibits the binding of the penicillin to S. aureus

9
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True or False: MRSA infections are only hospital-acquired.

False.

10
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Fill in the blank: The altered penicillin-binding protein in MRSA is known as ________.

PBP2a or PBP2’.

11
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METHODS FOR THE DETECTION OF MRSA BY ANTIMICROBIAL TESTING

Vancomycin agar screen plate, Oxacillin screen plate, Cefoxitin disk diffusion, Double-disk diffusion test (D-zone test)

12
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Identify the screening method for MRSA using 6 µg/mL vancomycin in Blood heart Infusion Agar (BHIA).

Vancomycin agar screen plate.

13
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How many ug/mL of vancomycin is need for the Vancomycin agar screen plate?

6 ug/mL

14
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True or False: Any growth on a vancomycin agar screen plate indicates MRSA resistance or a significant result.

True.

15
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Identify the screening method that uses Mueller Hinton Agar (MHA) with 4% NaCl and 6 ug/mL of antibiotic

Oxacillin screen plate.

16
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Components Needed in the Mueller-Hinton Agar (MHA) for oxacillin screen plate

4% NaCl and 6 ug/mL oxacillin

17
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True or False: The oxacillin screen plate can reliably detect oxacillin-resistant coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNs)

False.

18
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True or False: Oxacillin screen plate is suitable for detecting BORSA in clinical specimens

True

19
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Fill in the blank: BORSA stands for ________.

Borderline oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

20
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If staphylococcus is resistant to oxacillin, it is ruled out that it is also resistant to _____?

B-lactam drugs

21
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What antimicrobial disk is preferred for detecting oxacillin resistance in both S. aureus and S. lugdunensis?

Cefoxitin disk (30 µg).

22
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True or False: Oxacillin induces the expression of PBP2’ in mecA-containing strains of staphylococci

False, Cefoxitin

23
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Fill in the blank: The test used to detect inducible clindamycin resistance is called the ________.

Double-disk diffusion test or D-zone test

24
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Identify the antibiotic disks used in the D-zone test.

Erythromycin and clindamycin.

25
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When is D-zone test performed?

  • When the results of the macrolides (erythromycin and clindamycin) are opposite with one another.

  • For instance, resistant to erythro and susceptible to clinda

26
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Antibiotic disks used in the Double-Disk diffusion test (D-zone test)

15 ug erythromycin and 2 ug clindamycin

27
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15 mm to 26 mm

A 15-ug erythromycin disk and a 2-ug clindamycin disk are placed ___ to ___ mm apart on MHA or BAP with the isolate to be tested and incubated overnight

28
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Agar used for the Double-disk diffusion test (D-zone test)

Mueller-Hinton Agar (MHA), Blood Agar Plate (BAP)

29
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True or False: A positive D-zone indicates inducible resistance to clindamycin.

True.

30
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True or False: A negative D-zone is when the ZOI of the clindamycin disk is flattened or blunted near the erythromycin disk

True

<p>True</p>
31
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What is the first test used FOR THE IDENTIFICATION OF STAPHYLOCOCCAL SPECIES and the result it must indicate?

Gram stain (+)

32
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What is the second test used FOR THE IDENTIFICATION OF STAPHYLOCOCCAL SPECIES and the result it must indicate?

Catalase test (+)

33
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What is the third test used FOR THE IDENTIFICATION OF STAPHYLOCOCCAL SPECIES?

  • Coagulase (+) means S. Aureus

  • coagulase (-) means CoNs or Micrococci

34
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What test is performed for differentiating CoNs and Micrococci?

Oxidase or Bacitracin susceptibility

35
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a positive result in the Oxidase or Bacitracin susceptibility indicates?

Micrococcus sp.

36
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a negative result in the Oxidase or Bacitracin susceptibility indicates?

Coagulse-negative Staphylococcus sp. (CoNs)

37
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Novobiocin susceptibility differentiates ____ and ____?

CoNs and S. saprophyticus

38
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Fill in the blank: The best specimen for staphylococcal recovery is ________.

Aspirate.

39
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True or False: A single swab is the best method for culture and smear.

False.

40
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True or False: 3 swab must be requested for Gram stain and culture

False, only 2

41
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Spherical; singly, in pairs, or clusters

Staphylococcus: Gram-positive ____ cells that appear ____, in ____, or ____ (grape-like)

42
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Identification: an enzyme that catalyzes the decomposition of H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) to water and oxygen

Catalase

43
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Reagent used in the Catalase test for staphylococcus

3% H2O2

44
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Reagent used in the Catalase test for neisseria

15% H2O2

45
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What indicates a positive result in the catalase test?

bubble formation or effervescence in seconds

46
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BAP

Colonies to be used for the Catalase test must not be taken from ____

47
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Identify the confirmatory method for a positive slide coagulase test.

Tube coagulase test.

48
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True or False: Coagulase test uses rabbit plasma and Heparin as anticoagulant.

False, EDTA as anticoagulant.

49
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Best single criterion of pathogenicity of S. aureus

Coagulase test

50
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What does a positive coagulase test result look like?

Clot or coagulum formation within 30 seconds

51
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2 methods of coagulase test

Slide method, Tube method

52
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Detects cell-bound coagulase or clumping factor on the surface of the cell wall which reacts with fibrinogen in the plasma

Slide method

53
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54
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What are the Other slide coag-positive staph:

S. lugdunensis, S. schleiferi

55
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Considered a sensitive but definitive method for coagulase testing

Tube method

56
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Fill in the blanks: Tube method coagulase testing has a positive result of Clot or coagulum formation after ____ of incubation at ___ degrees celsius

1-4 hours, 35 degrees celsius

57
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True or False: for Tube method coagulase test, If no clot appears after 4 hours of incubation, the tube should be left at room temperature for an additional 24 hours of incubation

False, only 20 hours

58
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What are Other tube coag-positive staph?

S. hyicus, S. intermedius, S. lutrae, S. delphini, and S. schleiferi subsp. coagulans

59
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What test is Used to differentiate the pathogenic staphylococci from nonpathogenic ones?

Mannitol fermentation test

60
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What is the culture medium for Mannitol fermentation test?

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

61
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Fill in the blank: Mannitol fermentation test uses ________ as pH indicator.

Phenol red.

62
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True or False: S. aureus ferments mannitol, resulting in yellow colonies.

True.

63
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What ferments mannitol that results in red/colorless colonies?

S. saprophyticus, S. epidermidis, Micrococcus sp.

64
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S. aureus comes out as resistant to what test?

Polymyxin Sensitivity Test

65
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This is For the presumptive identification of S. saprophyticus using a 5-ug novobiocin disk

Novobiocin Susceptibility Test

66
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True or False: If the bacteria is resistant to an antibiotic, you will record 6 mm or the size of the disk since there is no ZOI to be measure

True

67
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Identify the coagulase-negative staphylococcus that shows resistance to novobiocin.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

68
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True or False: S. epidermidis and other CoNs are novobiocin-resistant.

False, only S. saprophyticus

69
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Fill in the blank: S. aureus colonies appear ________ on Tellurite Glycine Agar.

Jet black.

70
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True or False: The DNase test is used to identify pathogenic Staphylococcus species that produce DNAse.

True.

71
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What does a positive DNase test show?

Clear/colorless zone around colony.

72
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Identify the culture medium used in the DNase test.

DNA-methyl green agar.

73
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This test Differentiates S. aureus (VP +) from S. intermedius (VP -)

Voges-Proskauer (VP) test

74
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Fill in the blank: The Voges-Proskauer test detects ________ production.

Acetoin.

75
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True or False: S. aureus is VP negative.

False, VP positive.

76
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What is the (+) Result of the Voges-Proskauer (VP) test show?

Pink color acetoin

77
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True or False: Vogues-Proskauer test is used to differentiate the bacteria in the enterobacteriaceae

True

78
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Identify the culture medium used for routine staphylococcal isolation.

5% Sheep Blood Agar.

79
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Culture for purulent exudates and appropriate isolation of staph

Colistin-Nalidixic Agar (CNA)

80
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Culture with enriched with 5% sheep blood

Phenylethyl Alcohol (PEA) Agar

81
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Fill in the blank: Phenylethyl Alcohol (PEA) Agar: selective for _______

Gram-positive bacteria

82
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What culture is used for heavily contaminated specimens?

MSA and PEA

83
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Fill in the blank: The CHROM agar is a medium selective for ________.

MRSA.

84
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Rapid Methods for Identification

Test Kits, Molecular methods, Mass Spectrometry

85
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What type of test kits are used for differentiating S. aureus from CONS?

Agglutination test kits

86
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True or False: Latex agglutination tests detect both clumping factor and Protein A in the cell wall of S. aureus

True.

87
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Fill in the blank: Test kits have Higher specificity and sensitivity and are particularly useful for the identification of ___

MRSA

88
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Fill in the blank: MALDI-TOF stands for ________.

Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization Time-of-Flight.

89
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A mass spectrometry method that identifies the protein profile of MRSA and other microorganisms including the presence of mecA gene

MALDI-TOF

90
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True or False: RT-PCR can only be used to detect MSSA.

False, it is for both MRSA and MSSA.

91
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This molecular method involves for rapid identification of staph from blood culture smears

Qualitative nucleic acid hybridization assay

92
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Identify the coagulase-negative staphylococcus common in prosthetic valve endocarditis.

Staphylococcus epidermidis.

93
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Contaminant of medical instruments, catheters (indwelling and IV), CSF shunts, and prosthetic heart valve implants

Staphylococcus epidermidis

94
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True or False: S. epidermidis is commonly found in the skin microbiota.

True.

95
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Fill in the blank: PGA stands for ________ and provides adherence in S. epidermidis.

Poly-γ-DL-glutamic acid.

96
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Fill in the blanks: S. epidermidis has Colonies on BAP that appear ____, opaque, _____ sized pin-heads, and ______

white, small to medium, non-hemolytic

97
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what is the coagulase result of S. epidermidis?

Coagulase (-)

98
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Fill in the blanks: Staphylococcus epidermidis is Susceptible to _____

5-ug Novobiocin

99
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Measuring tool for determining the ZOI size for Antimicrobial test

Vernier caliper

100
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Identify the CoNS that causes UTI and cystitis in young, sexually active females.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus.